| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Neonatology (NCA- Ezhava/ Thiyya/ Billava)- Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 036/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 363/2023 |
| Date of Test | 6 April 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
At birth extracellular water compartment contributes to how much of total body weight?
Answer
B. 40%
2
Which of the following is NOT correct about ļ¬uid homeostasis in newborns?
Answer
C. The total body water is lower in small for gestational age babies as compared to appropriate for gestational age babies
3
Which of the following is INCORRECT about hypocalcaemia in neonates?
Answer
C. Shortened QT interval on ECG
4
All are true about perinatal glucose metabolism EXCEPT
Answer
B. Fetal glucose levels are usually maintained at approximately one-third of maternal levels
5
Wolcott Rallison syndrome is characterized by all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Good long term neurological outcome
6
Which of the following is NOT correct about diagnosis of Osteopenia of prematurity?
Answer
D. Hypocalciuria
7
Which of the following statements accurately reļ¬ects the physiological changes in bilirubin metabolism during the early postnatal period?
Answer
B. The rate of bilirubin production in newborns is about 2.5 times the rate of bilirubin production in the adults
8
Which of the following statements DOES NOT describe accurately a physiologic aspect of neonatal cardiovascular development?
Answer
A. The primary fuel for fetal myocardium is almost exclusively fatty acids in contrast to the adult heart
9
Following statement regarding Tyrosinemia type I is CORRECT
Answer
B. Succinyl acetone is highly sensitive marker for diagnosis
10
Following statement regarding major stages of CNS development is NOT CORRECT
Answer
C. Formation of corpus callosum occurs between 24-28 weeks of gestation
11
Following statement regarding cord management is NOT CORRECT as per the latest NRP guidelines update
Answer
D. For preterm newborn infants <28 weeks' gestation, intact cord milking may be reasonable compared with early cord clamping (<30 seconds)
12
A baby is about to be delivered at 26 weeks' gestation. The mother received two doses of betamethasone 24 hours ago. Which of the following is a good practice in the ļ¬rst 'golden hour' after delivery?
Answer
B. The baby should be born into a plastic bag or wrap so that he/she can maintain body temperature
13
Following statement is TRUE about birth weight categories in newborn
Answer
D. Low birth weight is when birth weight is less than 2500 gm regardless of gestational age
14
Following is NOT a major principle of ethical decision-making in neonatal medicine?
Answer
C. Hedonism
15
What is the most probable long-term neurological complication for a female infant born at 25 weeks' gestation, weighing 809 g, with a relatively uncomplicated neonatal course, including intubation and surfactant administration, mild feed intolerance, and apnea of prematurity, but no retinopathy of prematurity or abnormal cranial ultrasound?
Answer
C. Spastic Diplegia
16
In a 26-week gestation male infant, intubated and ventilated since delivery, who is 6 hours old and has received two doses of surfactant, with a chest radiograph showing a ground glass appearance with air bronchograms, and breathing at a rate of 65 breaths per minute, the current ventilation settings are as follows: Mode: assist control (SIPPV); Fractional inspired oxygen concentration (Fio2) 0.3; Peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) 18 cmH2O; positive end-expiratory pressure (PEEP) 6 cmH2O; rate 40 breaths per minute; inspiratory time (IT) 0.35 second. The arterial blood gas results are pH 7.19 [7.34-7.43]; Paco2 62 mmHg [31-42]; Pao2 56 mmHg [45-60]; bicarbonate 19 mmol I-1 [20-26]; base excess-4.8 [-5.0-5.0]. What would be the most appropriate alteration to the ventilator settings to improve ventilation?
Answer
D. Increase PIP to 20 cm
17
During the transfer of a 34-week male infant with respiratory distress syndrome (RDS) on a ventilator by airplane, who has received one dose of surfactant and is currently ventilated on SIMV with a back-up rate of 40, pressure 22/6, and Fio2 25%, you notice a gradual drop in oxygen saturations to the mid-80s as the plane ascends to 20,000 feet (6000 m). What would be your immediate action to address this situation?
Answer
A. Increase the inspired oxygen concentration
18
TRUE about "catch up" growth in premature babies is
Answer
A. Most catch up growth takes place between 36 to 40 weeks after conception
19
Mention TRUE statement regarding immunization in preterm babies?
Answer
A. Very low birth weight infants may have an increase in cardio respiratory events post vaccination
20
More than a quarter of global neonatal deaths occur in India. Government has launched many programmes for improvement of child health. Mark FALSE statement regarding neonatal health:
Answer
B. Early Neonatal mortality in ļ¬rst week of life account for 15% of all neonatal mortality
21
Mark FALSE statement about LaQshya Program:
Answer
C. Target beneļ¬ciaries are every pregnant woman and newborn delivering in private health institutions
22
Which is NOT the component of 5Ds of Rashtriya Bal Swasthaya Karyakram (RBSK)?
Answer
D. Drugs
23
Which is INCORRECT about INAP program?
Answer
D. It has main eight pillars of intervention
24
Community based interventions to improve neonatal health include all EXCEPT:
Answer
C. Antibiotics for preterm labor
25
Which of the following program is NOT associated with neonatal resuscitation?
Answer
C. Maternal Absolute Aļ¬ection (MAA) program
26
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about neonatal deaths?
Answer
C. The late neonatal deaths (8-28 days) are mostly because of asphyxia
27
Which of the following are TRUE regarding babies born to mother with gestational diabetes?
Answer
A. White's classiļ¬cation is used for gestational diabetes
28
Which of the following is NOT the method of screening and diagnosis of diabetes in pregnancy?
Answer
C. European Obstetric Association
29
Which of the following is CORRECT about antenatal steroids?
Answer
B. The ACTION trial was stopped for beneļ¬t at the interim analysis
30
Which of the following is CORRECT about antenatal fetal testing?
Answer
A. Percutaneous umbilical cord sampling will help in diagnosis of fetal anemia
31
Which of the following is NOT a genetic diagnostic test in newborn?
Answer
A. Tandem Mass Spectrometry
32
Which of the following is FALSE about hypertensive disorder of pregnancy?
Answer
C. Circulating sFlt-1 and soluble endoglin levels are found to have lower and P1GF levels higher in preeclampsia, even weeks prior to the recognition of the clinical condition
33
Which of the following is INCORRECT about genetic abnormalities in fetus?
Answer
D. Prader-Willi syndrome is an example of Trinucleotide Repeat Expansion
34
Which of the following statements is CORRECT about non-invasive prenatal screening (NIPS) or cell free DNA screening?
Answer
C. A vanishing twins, fetal mosaicism or placental mosaicism can also cause false negative results in NIPS
35
Which of the following is INCORRECT about screening of fetal disorders?
Answer
A. AFP is a fetal-speciļ¬c molecule that is synthesized by the fetal brain
36
Mark the CORRECT statement about invasive prenatal diagnostic method
Answer
D. Amniocytes in amniotic ļ¬uid can be analyzed for genetic studies
37
Which of the following is FALSE regarding immune hemolytic disease of newborn?
Answer
B. Indirect and direct antiglobulin tests are done in neonate and mother respectively
38
Which is TRUE regarding risk of fetal malformation in diabetic pregnancy is correct?
Answer
C. The rate of malformation is two to four times higher in type 1 and type 2 pregnancies than in the general population
39
Mark INCORRECT statement about amniotic ļ¬uid volume
Answer
B. Maternal obesity is associated with overestimation of amniotic volumes
40
Mark FALSE statement about fetal heart rate (FHR) tracing
Answer
C. An amplitude range of 6-25 beats/min in FHR is indicate of minimal heart rate variability
41
Mark INCORRECT statement about fetal biophysical proļ¬le (BPP)
Answer
D. It can be done within 10 minutes ultrasound assessment
42
Mark INCORRECT statement about surgical treatment of the fetus
Answer
B. Fetal endoscopic tracheal occlusion (FETO) is usually performed between 18 to 22 weeks of gestation in case of congenital diaphragmatic hernia
43
Which of the following is NOT a long term complication of IUGR?
Answer
A. Decreased risk of hypertension
44
Which of the following is INCORRECT about fetal origin of adult disease?
Answer
B. Non-epigenetic mechanisms drive fetal programming of adult disease and can have generational eļ¬ects
45
Which of the following statement is CORRECT about antenatal use of magnesium sulfate?
Answer
C. It is contraindicated in patients with myasthenia gravis
46
Mention FALSE statement regarding neonatal health programme.
Answer
C. The main goal of India Newborn Action Plan is attainment of "Single Digit NMR" and "Single Digit SBR by 2025"
47
Which of the following is NOT the component of Navjat Shishu Suraksha Karyakram (NSSK) Program?
Answer
A. Prevention of Jaundice
48
Which of the following is INCORRECT statement about Family centred neonatal care?
Answer
D. Decreases transparency
49
Which of the following is FALSE about Home Based Newborn Care (HBNC)?
Answer
C. The visits are done till 6 months of age of baby
50
Which of the following is INCORRECT about verbal autopsy in neonatal death?
Answer
C. The investigating team includes only medical personnel
51
All the following are true regarding renal vein thrombosis EXCEPT
Answer
D. Fibrin degradation products are usually decreased
52
All the following are true regarding immune thrombocytopenia EXCEPT
Answer
D. Parial thromboplastin time is prolonged
53
Anal wink reļ¬ex involves all the following segmental innervation EXCEPT
Answer
A. S1
54
To qualify for hypocalcemia at birth, a preterm infant weighing less than 1.5 kg should have ionized calcium less than
Answer
A. 4 mg/dl
55
Normal Resistive index value for newborn is
Answer
Question Cancelled
56
In the context of toxoplasmosis, which of the following do not cross the placenta?
Answer
D. Both 2 and 3
57
Which test is recommended for carbapenemase surveillance?
Answer
C. Modiļ¬ed Hodge test
58
Which of the following conditions is associated with decreased reticulocyte count?
Answer
D. Anemia of prematurity
59
Which of the following is avoided in Wolļ¬ Parkinson White Syndrome?
Answer
A. Digoxin
60
All the following are contraindications to ECMO EXCEPT
Answer
B. Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
61
Which of the following is a poor prognostic sign in congenital diaphragmatic hernia?
Answer
B. Herniation of liver
62
Oral feeds for a newborn with chylothorax should contain high percentage of
Answer
B. Medium chain triglycerides
63
All the following statements are true EXCEPT
Answer
D. Neonates of heroin users have more chance of severe physiologic jaundice
64
All the following are characteristics of high frequency oscillatory ventilation EXCEPT
Answer
C. Exhalation is passive
65
All the following can cause neutrophilia in the neonate EXCEPT
Answer
D. Ranitidine
66
All the following statements are true EXCEPT
Answer
B. Infants who have SGA invariably have IUGR also
67
When a T-piece is used for neonatal resuscitation
Answer
C. Both PIP and PEEP are constant
68
A 3-month old male infant born at 24 weeks' gestation has a history of necrotizing enterocolitis complicated by bowel resection and a continued dependence on parenteral nutrition. His physical examination is notable for hair loss, seborrhea and a scaly dermatitis. What vitamin is most likely to be deļ¬cient in this infant?
Answer
B. Biotin
69
Which among the following does not have a negative score in the New Ballard scoring for gestational age?
Answer
A. Posture
70
All the following are diagnostic criteria for hyperinsulinism EXCEPT
Answer
A. Insulin level >2 IU/ml
71
According to our National Guidelines, Comprehensive Lactation Management Centres should be established in
Answer
A. Medical colleges and Large District Hospitals
72
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Pendred syndrome?
Answer
D. Low thyroxine binding protein
73
Which of the following is NOT a feature of early acute bilirubin encephalopathy?
Answer
D. Fever
74
Which of the following condition is NOT associated with meconium plug?
Answer
D. Prematurity
75
Which drug ingestion during pregnancy may cause cutis laxa in newborn?
Answer
C. Pencillamine
76
In red zone group of Post Hemorrhagic Ventricular Dilation (PHVD) risk stratiļ¬cation, the key criteria cut oļ¬ for Anterior Horn Width (AHW)
Answer
C. AHW>10 mm
77
Following are the category components of modiļ¬ed Sarnath Examination except
Answer
A. Seizures
78
Following are the exclusion criteria for therapeutic hypothermia in HIE except
Answer
C. Choroid plexus cyst
79
Following are the physiological components of 'CRIES' pain assessment tool except
Answer
B. Respiratory rate
80
Most common adverse eļ¬ect of Pyrimethamine in neonates
Answer
A. Neutropenia
81
Modiļ¬ed Finnegan tool is used to assess
Answer
A. Neonatal abstinence
82
Most common disorder in congenital rubella syndrome
Answer
B. Ocular disease
83
Following are the indications of steroid in congenital toxoplasmosis
Answer
D. Both of these
84
One term baby was born, not cried at birth. Cord gas was normal. Had 2-3 episodes seizures in the ļ¬rst 72 hours and subsided. Baby was discharged at 1 week with paladay feeds as continued to have poor suck and increased tone. MRI done in follow up visit showed multicystic encephalomalacia and metabolic workup showed undetectable plasma uric acid. What is the possible diagnosis?
Answer
A. Molybdenum cofactor deļ¬ciency
85
Most common peripheral nerve injury in neonates
Answer
D. Facial nerve injury
86
Which one is not a component in BIND score?
Answer
A. Eye movement
87
Most common complication noted clinically after umbilical artery catheterization
Answer
D. Leg blanching
88
Following maternal drugs can cause early Vitamin K deļ¬ciency of neonates except
Answer
D. Sodium Valproate
89
Commonest abdominal mass in a neonate is
Answer
C. Renal mass
90
Most common cause of nonhereditary sensorineural hearing loss is
Answer
C. CMV
91
Following is the gold standard test for estimation of hearing thresholds and for conļ¬rmation of hearing level in neonates
Answer
A. Visual Reinforcement Audiometry (VRA) test
92
Following feature distinguishes toxic epidermal necrolysis (TEN) from staphylococcal scalded skin syndrome (SSSS) in neonates
Answer
D. Mucosal blistering
93
Following are the causes of vesiculoopustular eruptions in the newborn
Answer
D. All the above
94
Subcutaneous fat necrosis are associated with following except
Answer
B. Hyperthermia
95
Following are true about the airway hemangiomas in except
Answer
A. Airway hemangiomas can occur only with the presence of cutaneous infantile hemangiomas
96
Following syndrome is associated with multiple cafƩ au lait macules
Answer
D. All the above
97
Following are the high risk stratiļ¬cation of markers of occult spinal dysraphism except
Answer
C. Infantile hemangioma ā„1.5 cm
98
Visual acuity reaches normal adult ranges by
Answer
C. 2 years of age
99
"Oil-droplet cataracts" is seen in
Answer
B. Galactosemia
100
As per international classiļ¬cation of retinopathy of prematurity 2021, stage 5C ROP includes following ļ¬ndings except
Answer
D. Retinal holes
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.