| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Neonatology |
|---|---|
| Department | Medical Education |
| Question Paper Code | 084/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 683/2025 |
| Date of Test | 9 May 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A newborn male is conļ¬rmed to have an X-linked recessive disorder. Which of the following statements regarding his family members is CORRECT?
Answer
B. His maternal grandfather may himself have been aļ¬ected with the same disorder
2
Which of the following BEST explains why preterm neonates born at less than 32 weeks of gestation are disproportionately vulnerable to invasive bacterial infection compared with term neonates?
Answer
B. Signiļ¬cantly reduced transplacental IgG levels due to premature birth before the peak period of transfer
3
Regarding the embryological development of the diaphragm, which of the following structures contributes PRIMARILY to its muscular component, and also explains the innervation pattern of the diaphragm?
Answer
C. Myoblasts migrating from cervical somites (C3, C4, C5), which carry the phrenic nerve along with them
4
Which of the following statements regarding fetal haemoglobin (HbF) and oxygen transport is CORRECT?
Answer
C. HbF binds 2-3-diphosphoglycerate (2.3-DPG) less avidly than HbA, producing a left-shifted oxygen dissociation curve and higher oxygen aļ¬nity
5
A term neonate is born in a delivery room at an ambient temperature of 20oC and is wet with amniotic ļ¬uid. Which mechanism of heat loss is PRIMARILY responsible for the immediate drop in core body temperature in the ļ¬rst minutes after birth?
Answer
C. Evaporation - vaporisation of amniotic ļ¬uid from the wet skin surface
6
A preterm neonate is delivered at 28 weeks of gestation and requires immediate respiratory support. Based on the stage of lung development at this gestational age, Which of the following best describes the predominant structural characteristic of the lung at this stage?
Answer
C. The lung is in the saccular (terminal sac) stage, with widening of peripheral airways into saccules that can support limited gas exchange
7
A term neonate with d-transposition of the great arteries (d-TGA) and an intact ventricular septum presents with profound central cyanosis immediately after birth. Survival in this lesion fundamentally depends on:
Answer
B. Adequate intercirculatory mixing at the atrial level through a patent foramen ovale or atrial septal defect
8
Consider the following statements regarding cerebral blood ļ¬ow autoregulation in preterm neonates: I. Cerebral autoregulation in healthy preterm neonates functions over a wide range of mean arterial blood pressures, similar to adults II. In sick preterm neonates, cerebrovascular autoregulation is often impaired, resulting in pressure-passive cerebral blood ļ¬ow. III. Hypercapnia produces vasoconstriction in the cerebral vasculature of preterm neonates, reducing cerebral blood ļ¬ow. IV. Pressure-passive cerebral blood ļ¬ow increases the risk of intraventircular haemorrhage during episodes of systemic hypotension or hypertension Which combination of statements is CORRECT?
Answer
B. II and IV only
9
Which of the following correctly distinguishes Crigler-Najjar Syndrome Type I from Type II?
Answer
B. Type I has complete absence of UGT1A1 activity, requires 10-12 hours of daily phototherapy to prevent kernicterus and does NOT respond to phenobarbitone
10
A 3-day-old term neonate presents with poor feeding, progressive lethargy and a distinctive odour described as resembling 'sweaty feet' Investigations reveal normal blood glucose, metabolic acidosis with elevated anion gap, and elevated serum ammonia. The most likely diagnosis is:
Answer
B. Isovaleric acidaemia - due to accumulation of isovaleric acid from leucine metabolism
11
In a randomised controlled trial of prophylactic surfactant therapy in preterm neonates, the mortality rate in the control group was 20% and in the treatment group was 10%. Based on these ļ¬gures, which of the following correctly states the Number Needed to Treat (NNT) to prevent one death?
Answer
C. NNT = 10
12
A neonatologist wishes to determine whether early caļ¬eine therapy (initiated within the ļ¬rst 3 days of life) reduces the incidence of Bronchopulmonary Dysplasia (BPD) in neonates born below 30 weeks of gestation. Which of the following study designs would provide the STRONGEST evidence for a causal relationship between early caļ¬eine therapy and a reduction in BPD?
Answer
C. Randomised controlled trial with concealed allocation and blinded outcome assessment
13
Regarding the four principles of biomedical ethics in the context of neonatal end-of-life care, which of the following clinical actions BEST exempliļ¬es the principle of non-maleļ¬cence?
Answer
C. Discontinuing a treatment that is prolonging suļ¬ering without oļ¬ering any meaningful beneļ¬t to the neonate
14
According to current international neonatal resuscitation guidelines (NRP), which of the following satements regarding chest compressions during newborn resuscitation is CORRECT?
Answer
A. Chest compressions should be initiated when heart rate remains less than 60 bpm despite at least 30 seconds of eļ¬ective positive-pressure ventilation
15
A ventilated preterm neonate on pressure-controlled ventilation (PCV) with ļ¬xed peak inspiratory pressure (PIP) and respiratory rate shows a sudden increase in expired tidal volume without any change in ventilator settings. Which of the following is the MOST likely explanation?
Answer
B. Improvement in respiratory system compliance allowing greater volume delivery for the same pressure
16
The following arterial blood gas (ABG) result is obtained from a term neonate with respiratory distress at 2 hours of age. Analyse the result and identify the CORRECT interpolation Parameter Patient Value pH 7.20 PaCO2 65 mmHg PaO2 55 mmHg HCO3- 24 mEq/L Base Excess 2 mEq/L
Answer
B. Acute (uncompensated) respiratory acidosis
17
In the delivery room management of a neonate born at 27 weeks of gestation, which of the following interventions has the STRONGEST evidence- based recommendation for reducing hypothermia in the ļ¬rst minutes after birth?
Answer
B. Placing the neonate (without drying) into a polyethylene bag or occlusive wrap up to the neck, then placing under a radiant warmer
18
During the stabilisation and transport of a neonate with suspected congenital diaphragmatic hernia (CDH), which of the following is the MOST critical management priority to prevent acute deterioration?
Answer
B. Avoidance of bag-mask ventilation, with early endotracheal intubation and placement of an orogastric tube on free drainage
19
Which of the following statements regarding the optimal tip position of an umbilical venous catheter (UVC) in a neonate is CORRECT?
Answer
B. The optimal UVC tip position is at the junction of the inferior vena cava (IVC) and right atrium, conļ¬rmed radiographically
20
A study is designed to evaluate the diagnostic accuracy of a novel serum biomarket for early-onset neonatal sepsis. The investigators recruit neonates with clinical signs of sepsis as the 'case' group, and healthy term neonates from the postnatal ward as the 'control' group. Which type of bias is MOST likely to artiļ¬cially inļ¬ate the sensitivity and speciļ¬city of the test in this study?
Answer
A. Spectrum bias
21
Doppler velocimetry, especially of the umbilical artery, is a well- studied measurement in the setting of intrauterine growth restriction (IUGR) and can speciļ¬cally be a powerful tool in prognosticating severity of fetal growth restriction, potentially dictating prenatal management of IUGR foetuses. When included in prenatal testing in cases of suspected fetal growth restriction, the rate of perinatal death is decreased by almost:
Answer
C. 30%
22
Cerebro-placental ratio (CPR) is a Doppler index used to evaluate at risk fetal growth restricted (FGR) pregnancies. How do you correctly deļ¬ne COR?
Answer
B. Deļ¬ned as ratio of pulsatility index (PI) of MCA to PI of UA
23
Which of the following interventions have role in the prevention of preeclampsia?
Answer
D. Calcium
24
ACOG recommends antenatal magnesium sulphate for the following indications: i. Seizure prophylaxis in preeclampsia or treatment of eclampsia ii. Fetal neuroprotection before anticipated early preterm (less than 32 weeks of gestation) delivery iii. Tocolysis for up to 7-8 days
Answer
C. i, ii
25
Intrapartum Group B Streptococcus (GBS) prophylaxis is indicated in all of the folloiwing scenario EXCEPT:
Answer
D. Unknown GBS culture at the onset of labor in women
26
Various red cell antigens can cause antibody formation in pregnancy and lead to signiļ¬cant hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN) in future pregnancies. Which of the following systems carries the lead risk for HDN in human pregnancy?
Answer
A. Rh antigens
27
Hydrops Fetalis (HF) is deļ¬ned as the presence of excessive fetal ļ¬uid in two or more of the spaces: abdominal ascites, pleural eļ¬usion, pericardial eļ¬usion, skin edema, polyhydramnios or placentomegaly. Which of the following criteria has been described incorrectly for the deļ¬nition of HF?
Answer
A. Pericardial eļ¬usion - Non-physiologic ļ¬uid 5 mm
28
Amniotic ļ¬uid surrounds the developing embryo throughout gestation, protecting the fetus and umbilical cord from trauma. Which of the following is the main mechanism of ļ¬uid dynamics in early pregnancy before 24 weeks?
Answer
B. Surface exchange across fetal skin
29
The choice of empirical antibiotics in women with preterm premature rupture of membranes (PPROM) has an important implication on neonatal outcomes. The administration of co-amoxiclav (ampicillin/clavularic acid) in women with PPROM or preterm labor with intact membranes was associated with an increased risk for:
Answer
C. Necrotizing enterocolitis
30
A mother suļ¬ering from immune thrombocytopenic purpura (ITP) had marked thrombocytopenia during her pregnancy and required intravenous immunoglobulin (IVIg) therapy to maintain platelets in the safe range. However, she had to be delivered by cesarean section at 30 weeks as her platelets hovered around 10,000 mm3. The baby boy born with birth weight of 960 g had generalized petechiae and bruises and day 1 work up revealed platelet counts of 19,000/mm3; neurosonogram screening showed intraventricular haemorrhage (IVH) Grade II bilaterally. Which one of the following is the recommended initial management options for him?
Answer
A. Platelets transfusion plus IvIg
31
The rarity of high-order multiple gestations can be appreciated by the quasi-mathematical Hellin-Zellany rule for twins, triplets and quadruplets. According to this rule, if the frequency of twins in a population is 1 in 100, what would be the frequency of triplets?
Answer
B. 1 in 10,000
32
Generally, the condition twin-to-twin transfusion syndrome (TTTS) gives the impression of serious morbidity, but the speciļ¬c outcome is related to the gestational age when TTTS occurred and to the severity of the syndrome. At or beyond which of the following stage, treatment is indicated?
Answer
D. Stage II
33
A 34-years old female visits to an obstetrician with 8 weeks of amenorrhoea. Should this woman be oļ¬ered testing for chromosomal abnormalities as per American College of Obstetricians and Gynecologists?
Answer
C. Should be discussed and oļ¬ered to all patients early in pregnancy regardless of maternal age or baseline risk
34
What is the source of DNA in Cell-Free DNA Screening?
Answer
A. Placental trophoblasts
35
Chorionic Villus Sampling (CVS) involves procuring a small sample of the placenta for genetic diagnosis. Which of the following is true regarding this procedure?
Answer
A. Usually performed between 10 and 13 weeks gestation
36
As-low-as reasonably-achievable (ALARA) principle holds true for: i. Ultrasound ii. X-rays iii. Radiation safety iv. MRI
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
37
The sinusoidal pattern is a smooth, sine wave-like undulating pattern in fetal heart rate baseline with a frequency of 3 to 5 cycles/min that persists for at least 20 minutes is labeled as sinusoidal pattern. Which fetal condition is classically associated with this pattern?
Answer
C. Severe fetal anemia
38
An unblocked pregnant woman with irregular antenatal follow up arrives in your labour room at a gestational age of 41 weeks in labour pains. Her records show moderate gestational diabetes mellitus. The obsteric evaluation rules out fetal distress. What problem you may anticipate in the neonate during delivery?
Answer
A. Shoulder dystocia
39
Category I fetal heart rate tracings are predictive of normal fetal acid-base balance at the time of observation. Which of the following is not the criteria for category I tracing?
Answer
D. Accelerations must be prevent
40
A pregnant female in her second trimester presents with inexorable prutitus associated with erythematous urticarial patches and plaques, which are typically located around the navel. The skin lesions progressed to tense vesicles and blisters, which spread peripherally. The face, palms, soles and mucous membranes are usually unaļ¬ected. The dermatologist suggested a diagnosis of herpes gestattionis. Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding the latter?
Answer
A. It is a rare autoimmune disorder associated with herpes infection
41
An ELBW neonate with necrotizing entercolitis is on mechanical ventilation, nil orally and parenteral nutrition. During morning round, you ļ¬nd that the baby's lips and tongue are dry, covered with dry ļ¬akes with occasional bleeding spots. How will you provide oral care to this infant?
Answer
C. With colostrum
42
During parenteral nutrition of neonates, why 20% lipid emulsions are preferred over 10%?
Answer
B. 10% emulsions contain proportionately higher amounts of phospholipids which combine with cholesterol to form lipoprotein X, that interferes with the clearance of infused tri-glycerides
43
A late preterm neonate born to a primigravida mother was discharged on request on day 2 of life. The mother was not conļ¬dent regarding breast feeding, however she decided for discharge due to social reasons. She tried for exclusive breastfeeding at home. Baby came for follow up on day 10 of life 20% weight loss. This baby is at increased risk of :
Answer
C. Hypermatremia
44
A 34-week neonate with a respiratory rate of 70/minute, mild retractions and grunting has been initiated on high ļ¬ow nasal cannula (HFNC). Which of the following is CORRECT regarding this respiratory support?
Answer
B. The ļ¬ow rate of the gas should exceed 1 L/minute
45
A neonates in undergoing pressure support ventilation (PSV). Which of the following is TRUE regarding cycling of this mode?
Answer
B. Cycling occurs when inspiratory gas ļ¬ow falls to a predetermined proportion of peak ļ¬ow
46
A neonate delivered through meconium stained liquor developed respiratory distress so initiaited on mechanical ventilation. Baby desaturates with light or noise. Right upper limb SpO2 is 94% while lower limb SpO2 is 82%. An echocardiography done in this case is expected to reveal all of the following, EXCEPT:
Answer
D. Narrowing of arch
47
Which cardiac anomaly must be EXCLUDED before initiating ECMO?
Answer
C. Total anomalous pulmonary venous return
48
A full-term, 3.2 kg neonate, delivered by caesarean section, cried immediately after birth and shifted with mother in a district hospital. Baby was breastfeeding well and passing urine and stools normally. Critical congenital heart disease screening done at 30 hr of life was passed. He was discharged at 60 hr of life. He returned to Pediatric emergency on day 5 of life with lethargy, poor feeding, decreased urine output and quiet tachypnea. Sepsis screen done was negative. What will you do in this scenario?
Answer
D. PGE1 infusion should be started immediately
49
A neonate presented with small, low-set ears, short width of eye openings (palpebral ļ¬ssures), hooded eyes, a relatively long face, an enlarged nose tip (bulbous), or a short or ļ¬attened groove in the upper lip and hypocalcemic seizures. The neonate is also tachypneic and cyanosed. Which genetic evaluation should be performed in this neonate?
Answer
A. FISH for deletion 22q11
50
A full-term neonate born by spontaneous vaginal delivery developed gradually worsening respiratory distress since birth. Chest radiograph done at 16- hour-of life revealed ground-glass appearance. Despite high inļ¬ating and positive end-expiratory pressures and a FiO2 of 1, the arterial blood gas revealed a pH of 7.02, arterial carbon dioxide tension (PaCO2) of 84, and an arterial oxygen tension (PaO2) of 23 mm Hg. What should be the MOST appropriate management of this neonate?
Answer
Question Cancelled
51
A mother reaches neonatal emergency with complaints of bluish discolouration of tongue and lips of her 6 day old baby. An echo cardiogram done by junior resident was unremarkable and blood gas revealed pH=7.38. PaCO2 = 45; PaO2 = 78 mm Hg. What is your MOST probable diagnosis?
Answer
A. Methemoglobinemia
52
Which of the following is the goal of enteral nutrition in extremely preterm neonates?
Answer
D. Weight gain = 18 g/kg/day; head growth 0.9 cm/wk; length gain = 1 cm/ wk
53
Which feeding strategy has been found to decrease the frequency of necrotizing enterocolitis?
Answer
B. Standardized feeding regimen
54
High intensity gallium nitride LEDs with emission within 460-490 nm regions are one of the most commonly used phototherapy devices and have all of the following beneļ¬ts, EXCEPT :
Answer
Question Cancelled
55
Which of the following is false about PRBC transfusion related necrotizing enterocolitis (NEC)?
Answer
D. It is standard of care to withhold feeds during PRBC transfusion
56
An extremely low birth weight (ELBW) neonate, with respiratory distress syndrome was intubated, ventilated and given surfactant. Minimal enteral nutrition along with IV ļ¬uid was started. how should you revise the ļ¬uid order after 24 hours?
Answer
C. Depends on the urine output and weight of the baby
57
Blood gas analysis of a preterm 1.2 kg neonate showed serum sodium of 128 mEq/L. On further assessment, urine output was 5 mL/kg/hr and present weight was 1020 g. On urinary electrolyte assessment, urine sodium was 50 mEq/L. All of the following can be the cause of hyponatremia in this scenario, EXCEPT:
Answer
D. Diarrhea
58
The ratio of intracellular to extracellular ļ¬uid volume reaches adult levels by:
Answer
A. 1 year
59
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding congenital hypothyroidism?
Answer
A. Classic clinical features of congenital hypothyroidism are usually present at birth
60
In newborns with disorders of sex diļ¬erentiation, considerable information can be obtained by performing a careful physical examination. Which of the following disorders will result in palpable gonads in male-appearing genitalia?
Answer
B. Persistent Mullerian duct syndrome
61
Dietary sources contribute maximum to magnesium stores in the body. The rate of absorption is more in term and preterm neonates as compared to adults. Which of the following parts is the main site of absorption of magnesium?
Answer
B. Terminal ileum
62
In which of the following scenarios, you will consider a bolus of 2 ml/ kg 10% dextrose in a neonate?
Answer
C. A neonate with lethargy with blood sugar of 35 mg/dL
63
Fetal and neonatal alloimmune thrombocytopenia (FNAIT) is the most common cause of severe neonatal thrombocytopenia and of intracranial hemorrhage (ICH) in term neonates. What is the most common human platelet antigens (HPA) involved in the pathogenesis of FNAIT?
Answer
A. HPA 1
64
Fetal liver is believed to be the major site of hematopoiesis between weeks 6 and 16, thereafter the bone marrow assumes this role by week 24. Which of the following hemoglobin is most expressed during this period?
Answer
C. Hb F
65
Thrombolytic agents are mainstay of therapy in adults for several indications including myocardial infarction, strokes etc. However, there are few selected indications for systemic thrombolysis in neonates. Which of the following is NOT one of these indications?
Answer
B. Acute ischemic stroke
66
A 26-week pregnant woman with Rh isoimmunization has been planned for intra-uterine transfusion (IUT) of her fetus. What is the most preferred site for IUT in the fetus?
Answer
D. Umbilical cord at placental insertion site
67
Automated auditory brainstem response (AABR) for screening and ABR for diagnostic testing are obtained from surface electrodes that record neural activity in the cochlea, outer and inner hair cells, auditory nerve and brainstem in response to a click stimulus. In AABR, a predetermined algorithm provides an automated pass-or-fail response to the presence or absence of which wave on the ABR?
Answer
C. 5
68
Diļ¬use excessive high-signal intensities (DEHSI) on term equivalent MRI is a common ļ¬nding, reported on term equivalent MRI in 50%-90% of preterm infants. What is the implication of these lesions on the long-term neurodevelopment outcomes in follow-up studies?
Answer
A. No association
69
Spinal dysraphisms are a subset of neural tube defects and are classiļ¬ed as open or closed. Which of the following is an example of open spinal dysraphism?
Answer
Question Cancelled
70
A newborn is comfortable, awake and breathing regularly. He does not vocalize during the observation period but moves his limbs slightly and gently. According to Prechtl's behavioral states, which state is the newborn in?
Answer
C. State 3
71
A term neonate, born through meconium-stained liquor, develops respiratory distress and requires mechanical ventilation and sedation. The neonate has sudden dip in saturation with almost no visible chest rise and absent breath sounds. The neonate is revived with hand-ventilation after administering vecuronium. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
B. Chest wall rigidity
72
Propofol in increasingly being shown to be eļ¬ective and safe in treating procedural sedation and anesthesia in neonates. What is the most important concern that has been raised by the recent studies in neonates?
Answer
A. Hypotension
73
While antenatal interventions are available for only a limited number of neonatal surgical conditions. Which of the following is a primary indication for Fetoscopic Endoluminal Tracheal Occlusion (FETO)?
Answer
B. Congenital diaphragmatic hernia
74
A neonate is born to mother with known hepatitis C infection via spontaneous vaginal delivery. When is the optimal time for ruling out vertical hepatitis C infection in the infant?
Answer
D. 18 months by anti-HCV antibodies
75
An 11-day-old term neonate is noted to have "only fast breathing" by a community health worker (CHW) on a routine follow up home visit and the father is not willing to accept referral to hospital. Which is the most appropriate strategy for the CHW to manage such neonate according to WHO recommendations on managing possible serious bacterial infection in young infants 0-59 days old?
Answer
C. Referral is not needed, give oral amoxicillin on outpatient basis
76
A preterm neonate develops late-onset sepsis requiring increased respiratory support, feed intolerance and abdominal distention. Her blood culture is positive for Candida albicans. Which of the following drugs is the treatment of choice in this neonate?
Answer
A. Intravenous amphotericin B
77
A pregnant woman tests positive for Human Immunodeļ¬ciency Virus (HIV) post-delivery. She has not received any antiretroviral treatment (ART) during pregnancy. What is the recommended prophylactic treatment for her neonate as per latest National AIDS Control Organisation (NACO) guidelines?
Answer
C. Nevirapine and Zidovudine
78
A preterm neonate is intubated for respiratory distress syndrome. The endotracheal tube (ET) is ļ¬xed at 7 cm and a call is sent for a chest x-ray to conļ¬rm the ET position. Which is the ideal location of the ET tip on chest x-ray?
Answer
B. T1-2 vertebral bodies
79
A 3.2 kg male neonate is delivered via caesarean section through clear amniotic ļ¬uid at 37 weeks of gestation. The neonate is noted to have respiratory distress soon after birth, which resolves within 24 hours. What will be the most likely initial ļ¬nding on lung ultrasound in this neonate?
Answer
B. Double lung point
80
A pregnant woman undergoes a fetal ultrasound examination at 32 weeks of gestation. The radiologist notes bilateral hydroureteronephrosis in the fetus with a characteristic keyhole sign of the bladder. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in this case?
Answer
C. Posterior urethral valve
81
A small for date newborn with congenital cataract was found to have a murmur, which on ECHO revealed PDA. The neonate was having a characteristic retinal appearance described as "salt and pepper". The vision is moderately aļ¬ected
Answer
B. Pigmentary retinopathy
82
Aggressive posterior ROP is recognized by all except
Answer
D. A ridge between the junction vascularized and non-vascular retina
83
Plus disease in ROP is characterized by
Answer
B. Vascular dilation and tortuosity
84
Which zone has the worst prognosis if involved
Answer
B. Zone I
85
A newborn developed central cyanosis, which improved with crying. Which one is the best bedside method for diagnosis?
Answer
C. Passing a feeding tube through the nostrils
86
A neonate developed progressive biphasic stridor, which worsened over the following weeks. The baby had an uneventful postnatal period and no feeding diļ¬culties. Which is the most apparent treatment modality?
Answer
C. Oral propranolol
87
A 4-week-old neonate had progressive stridor since birth, Which worsens on feeding supine and is associated with recurrent desaturation and poor weight gain. The Pediatrician referred to an ENT specialist for an opinion. Flexible laryngoscopy showed omega-shaped epiglottis. What is the most likely next step for management?
Answer
A. Supraglottoplasty
88
A term neonate developed a vasicobullos lesion over the trunk and extremities. There is no mucosal involvement and the skin slips oļ¬ with slight pressure, leaving an erosion. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
C. Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome
89
A 3-day-old neonate developed erythematous macules with central pustules all over the body except palms and soles. The baby is feeding well at the breast; otherwise active and alert. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Answer
D. Erythema toxicum neonataraum
90
A neonate developed generalized erythematous rash and scaling, ecropion of the eyelid and was encased in a shiny parchment-like membrane. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Answer
A. Lamellar ichthyosis
91
Which one intervention in the community has the maximum impact on reducing the LBW-related mortality rate in the community?
Answer
B. Immediate KMC
92
What is the leading cause of neonatal mortality in India?
Answer
C. Prematurity
93
Beneļ¬ciaries under PM-JAY are identiļ¬ed based on:
Answer
B. Socio-Economic Caste Census 2011 databases
94
A neonate with extreme prematurity (28 weeks) requires a prolonged NICU stay in a private hospital. Which statement is MOST accurate?
Answer
B. Coverage limited to predeļ¬ned package rates
95
The MOST important component of KMC is:
Answer
B. Skin-to-Skin contact
96
The district shows high neonatal mortality despite high institutional delivery rates (>90%). The most likely explanation is:
Answer
B. Inadequate facility-based newborn care quality
97
An ASHA visited a 3-day-old newborn with fast breathing (RR 70/ min.) but feeding well. What is the MOST appropriate action?
Answer
C. Current referral to health facility
98
Which indicator BEST reļ¬ects the quality of perinatal care?
Answer
A. Neonatal mortality rate
99
Which indicator is MOST sensitive to improvements in delivery room care?
Answer
B. Early neonatal mortality
100
What is the Neonatal mortality rate in India?
Answer
Question Cancelled
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