| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Nuclear Medicine- Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 039/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 342/2023 |
| Date of Test | 6 April 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Coordination number of a metal ligand complex is
Answer
A. the number of ligands in the complex
2
Nucleon numbers called magic numbers are
Answer
C. 2, 8, 20, 50, 82 or 126
3
In alpha decay, the atomic number of the parent nuclide and the mass number is reduced by
Answer
B. 2 and 4
4
In a Technetium radiopharmaceutical the number of states that Technetium can exist is
Answer
C. 3
5
The radiopharmaceuticals requiring one solvent chromatography are all except
Answer
D. Tc-99m DTPA
6
What instrument will you use if you have a spill of 2 mCi of I-131 in your lab?
Answer
B. Survey Meter
7
The type of collimator used in thyroid probe is
Answer
D. Flatļ¬eld collimator
8
Thermal neutrons are absorbed by
Answer
B. Cadmium
9
For a radiopharmaceutical if Tp is < Tb, then the Te will be
Answer
A. Less than Tp
10
A kit preparation of Tc-99m which involves a transchelation reaction is
Answer
D. Tc-99m ECD
11
The precision of measured counts is indicated by
Answer
B. Standard deviation
12
For a count of 10,000, calculate the % uncertainity
Answer
A. 1%
13
How closely a measurement agrees with the "True" value is called its?
Answer
C. Accuracy
14
Radioactive disintegration follows a
Answer
B. Poisson distribution
15
Interater agreement for categorical items is measured using
Answer
D. Cohens Kappa
16
What statistical test will you apply to determine the signiļ¬cance of diļ¬erence between the means of two sets of data obtained from the same set of patients following a normal distribution and whether positive or negative?
Answer
D. Two-sided Paired t test
17
For a ļ¬rst order process rate constant k X concentration of substance in the compartment determines
Answer
B. ļ¬ux
18
The technique that averages local pixel values to reduce the eļ¬ect of pixel-to-pixel variation is
Answer
C. Smoothing
19
Nominal data from independent groups is analyzed using
Answer
B. Chi Square Test
20
A useful approach to determine causes of artifacts in PET and SPECT images is
Answer
C. Sinogram
21
Identify this structure(arrow)
Answer
C. Azygous lobe
22
Identify this structure
Answer
B. Putamen
23
Identify the pathology on I-131 MIBG planar scan
Answer
A. Pheochromocytoma
24
Identify the pathology on Tc-99m Mebrofenin scan
Answer
B. Choledochal cyst
25
Identify the structure with increased FDG uptake on PET/CT
Answer
D. Pancreas
26
At the cellular level, the following components have been implicate in promoting elevated FDG uptake in the malignant cells compared to host cells except
Answer
D. Increased dephosphorylation of FDG-6-P and less egress of FDG activity out of the malignant cell
27
An imaging radiopharmaceutical for tumor Apoptosis
Answer
C. 99mTc-Annexin
28
Which of the following mechanism justiļ¬es the increased uptake of 11C methionine in cancer cells?
Answer
D. Trans methylation
29
99 Tc RBC scintigraphy for the diagnosis of hepatic cavernous hemangioma
Answer
B. Is the most speciļ¬c noninvasive method
30
Critical organ for 201 Thallium is
Answer
B. Kidneys
31
Which of the following radioisotope is recommended for the labeling of monoclonal antibodies for PET imaging?
Answer
B. 124 I
32
On myocardial perfusion scan which of the following factors can be considered an advantage of 99m Tc tetrofosmin over 99m Tc Sestamibi?
Answer
B. Rapid hepatic clearance
33
What is the most appropriate radiopharmaceutical for myocardial perfusion with PET?
Answer
B. 13 N Ammonia
34
Which brain SPECT imaging has the poorest resolution quality?
Answer
D. 133 Xe
35
Which among the following is radiochemical impurity?
Answer
A. Presence of free 99m Tc in radiopharmaceutical preparation
36
Argon is the choice of gas ļ¬lled in dose calibrator due to
Answer
D. All of the above
37
The major interactions in soft tissues for 100 Kev to 10 Mev energy range is
Answer
B. Compton Scattering
38
It is called for an investigation of Over Exposure if a person is receiving exposure more than 10 mSv during
Answer
C. Monitoring period
39
Organ absorbed dose is
Answer
A. Directly proportional to the eļ¬ective half-life of the radionuclide
40
131 Iodine sealed in the capsule for the treatment of thyroid disorder is termed as
Answer
B. Special form of radioactive material
41
In case of spillage of very high radionuclide activity, the steps taken are i. Information to RSO ii. Decontaminate the area iii. Inform others about the incidence iv. Control the spread of contamination
Answer
D. iv, ii, iii
42
Sensitivity to radiation carcinogenesis is maximum for
Answer
B. Children < 20 yrs
43
If the physical half-life of a radionuclide is 2 days and the biological half-life is 4 days, the eļ¬ective half life of the radionuclide is
Answer
C. 1.33 days
44
Basic principle of radiation protection is to
Answer
A. Completely avoid deterministic eļ¬ects and minimize stochastic eļ¬ects well below the detectable levels
45
Doubling dose for genetic eļ¬ects is
Answer
A. Dose needed to achieve double the mutation rate compared to the natural mutation rate
46
Tissue weighting factor is based on
Answer
A. Fractional contribution of a tissue based on relative detriment towards stochastic risk
47
Which of the following is the principle of medical ethics?
Answer
D. All of the above
48
Which of the following are types of consent?
Answer
D. All of the above
49
Which instrument is used for locating radioactive contamination?
Answer
C. Geiger Counter
50
True incidence counts in PET imaging correspond to the number of __________ that occur between a pair of PET detector crystals.
Answer
A. Positron - electron annihilation
51
What is the minimum volume of gastrointesinal (GI) bleed that can be detected by RBC scintigraphy?
Answer
B. 0.5 mL
52
PSMA therapy most common side eļ¬ects is
Answer
C. Sialadenitis
53
What is the mechanism of choline uptake in parathyroid adenoma on Choline PET/CT?
Answer
C. Both Chief cells and Oxyphil cells
54
Therasphere/Sirsphere is contraindicated if right to left shunt is more than
Answer
C. 20%
55
PET/MR is best indicated in
Answer
D. Liver metastasis
56
Radiotherapy is indicated in patients with thyroid cancer
Answer
C. Spinal metastasis
57
Dose limiting factor in pediatric thyroid cancer patients is with following site of metastasis
Answer
B. Lung metastasis
58
During a lung perfusion study, activity is noted in the head and in the area of the kidneys. This represents
Answer
B. Right to left shunt
59
When activity is noted in the head and in the area of the kidneys, minimum right to left shunt is
Answer
B. 8
60
FAPI PET/CT has advantage over FDG PET/CT in patients with
Answer
A. GI malignancy
61
In TENIS patients of thyroid cancer FDF PRY/CT is indicated when minimum Tg level is
Answer
D. More than 20
62
Sandwich protocol in neuroendrocrine tumor therapy is
Answer
B. DOTATATE therapy followed by chemotherapy followed by DOTATATE therapy
63
CXCR for PET/CT is based on
Answer
A. Chemokine receptors
64
Ga-68 trivhexine PET/CT imaging is based on
Answer
A. Integrin expression receptor
65
F-18 Tetraļ¬uoroborate PET/CT imaging is based on
Answer
D. Sodium/iodide symporter
66
In 3D PET acquisition, what determines the optimum amount of administered activity?
Answer
B. Noise equivalent count rate
67
What is the recommended approach to optimize radiation dose to patients in PET examinations?
Answer
B. Administer an amount of radioactivity suļ¬cient for good images of diagnostic information
68
What is the half-value thickness of lead material for 511 keV photons compared to 140 keV photons?
Answer
A. 4.1 mm vs 0.3 mm
69
What is the primary concern regarding radiation exposure for staļ¬ in nuclear medicine compared to radiology and teletherapy?
Answer
A. Internal contamination from unsealed sources
70
Which areas in nuclear medicine facility are typically classiļ¬ed as controlled areas?
Answer
C. Storage and preparation rooms for radiopharmaceuticals
71
What is the purpose of the Annual Limit on Intake (ALI)?
Answer
C. To estimate the dose resulting from internal contamination
72
Which method is typically used to remove loose contamination from surfaces in nuclear medicine facilities?
Answer
C. Wet swabbing
73
What action should be taken if ļ¬xed contamination emits high-energy gamma radiation and has a long half-life?
Answer
A. Dispose of the contaminated object
74
Which of the following factors is NOT typically considered when planning the layout of a Nuclear Medicine department?
Answer
B. Proximity to the emergency room
75
How does the gamma ray constant of PET radionuclides compare to that of Tc-99m?
Answer
B. 7 times more
76
Which of the following radionuclides used for pain palliation works by Auger electron emission?
Answer
B. 117mSn
77
Most common toxicity of therapy is
Answer
A. Thrombocytopenia
78
Physiological sites for DMSA concentration are all of the following except
Answer
D. Skull bones
79
All of the following are PET agents except
Answer
D. N-14
80
Octreotide is preferred over Somatisation because
Answer
B. It has a longer half-life than the latter
81
All of the following tumors take up Octreotide except
Answer
D. Glioblastoma multiforme
82
The T1/2 of Carbon-11, Fluorine-18, Oxygen-15 and Nitrogen-13 are respectively
Answer
A. 20 min, 110 mins, 2 mins and 10 mins
83
Which among the following drugs with not interfere with MIB uptake?
Answer
B. Deriphylline
84
The Fu radionuclide used for large joint synoveitomy is
Answer
C. Y-90
85
Which among the following radio isotope is not used for palliation of bone pain?
Answer
D. Re 188
86
Which among the following radio isotope is not used for imaging medullary carcinoma thyroid?
Answer
C. Ā¹Ā³Ā¹I NaI
87
therapy is not indicated in
Answer
D. Anaplastic carcinoma thyroid
88
Among neuroendocrine tumors which has the good prognosis?
Answer
C. Ga DOTA positive and 18 FDG scan negative
89
Which radioisotope is ideal for whole body imaging in well diļ¬erentiated thyroid tumor after thyroidectomy?
Answer
B. Ā¹Ā²Ā³I
90
Which one of the following drugs interfere with the uptake of 131 I in the thyroid gland/metastasis?
Answer
D. Amiodarone
91
Which one of the following is the proper way of validating the data?
Answer
C. Repetition of data collection in a randomly selected subset in the same population
92
To describe the study population characteristics we need to
Answer
A. Calculate the frequency of distribution
93
Which of the following is TRUE for a "Descriptive Research Question"?
Answer
A. Involves observation to measure a quantity
94
The ability to apply the principles of analysis to identify those studies which are unbiased and valid is called as
Answer
A. Critical appraisal
95
The purpose of a double-blinding in a clinical trial is to
Answer
B. Avoid observer and participant bias
96
In a clinical trial, what is the main purpose of randomization?
Answer
C. To get groups with comparable baseline characteristics
97
Statistical power is deļ¬ned as the probability of
Answer
C. Rejecting a null hypothesis when it is false
98
Ability of a study to detect correctly the presence of an association is known as
Answer
B. Power
99
A study design that randomly assigns participation into an experimental group or control group is called as
Answer
C. Randomized Controlled Trials
100
Diļ¬erence between the minimum value and the maximum value of the observations
Answer
C. Range
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