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Kerala PSC Assistant Professor in Nursing Previous Question Paper – 089/2026/OL

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Post NameAssistant Professor in Nursing
DepartmentMedical Education
Question Paper Code089/2026/OL
Category Code692/2025, 693/2025
Date of Test9 May 2026
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
The nurse should observe the client on anticoagulants for
Answer
B. Epistaxis
2
The most common complications of myocardial infarction is
Answer
C. Cardiac dysrhythmia
3
Which of the following position is correct to evaluate the apical heart rate of the patient?
Answer
B. Fifth intercostals space on the left side of the mid-clavicular line
4
After Spinal anesthesia, the nurse will position the client
Answer
D. On his back or side head raised
5
Following the extensive surgery it is most important for the nurse to observe the client for the depletion of which of the following electrolyte?
Answer
D. Potassium
6
If the IV infusion is infiltrated, in the client the nurse should first
Answer
B. Discontinue the infusion
7
In a client has congestive heart failure, which of the following blood chemistry results is expected to be elevated?
Answer
C. LDH
8
A client is in a state of uncompensated acidosis. The nurse would expect the arterial blood pH to be approximately?
Answer
B. 7.2
9
Therapeutic communication involves all except
Answer
D. Probing
10
The diet for elderly should include
Answer
A. Balanced low salt and high fibre diet
11
Example of Hinge joint is
Answer
C. Elbow joint
12
Hassall's corpuscles are seen in
Answer
D. Thymus
13
Juxtaglomerular apparatus consist of all the following except
Answer
B. Kupffer cell
14
The most numerous papillae present in the anterior two-third of tongue
Answer
A. Filiform papillae
15
The causative agent of small pox
Answer
D. Variola virus
16
A patient with a history of severe vomiting and diarrhoea has been admitted with complaints of lower limb weakness. His serum potassium is estimated to be 2.5 mEq/L. Which of the following nursing interventions is most appropriate?
Answer
A. Initiate cardiac monitoring
17
A 38-year-old agricultural worker is admitted to the Emergency ward with a history of alleged consumption of pesticides. He presents with Excessive salivation and sweating, bradycardia (Pulse rate at 45/mt), and miosis. Which of the following nursing actions is /are appropriate? i. Administer the antidote IV Flumazenil ii. Administer IV Atropine as per orders iii. Continuous Respiratory and cardiac monitoring iv. Administer IV Vecuronium
Answer
B. Only ii & iii
18
A 54-year-old female is on SIMV mode of mechanical ventilation following cardiac surgery. On observation, the high-pressure alarm on the ventilator sounds repeatedly. What would be the most appropriate initial action?
Answer
C. Check for Airway obstruction, including bronchospasm
19
The following question has two statements. Choose the correct option: Statement 1: The key characteristics of Neurogenic shock include hypotension and tachycardia. Statement 2: It occurs due to a sudden loss of sympathetic tone.
Answer
D. First statement is false, second is true
20
A 45-year-old woman with chronic kidney disease suddenly collapsed in the ICU. She is unresponsive, with no pulse. CPR is initiated. The monitor shows ventricular fibrillation (VF). The first shock is delivered, and CPR is resumed, but the rhythm remains ventricular fibrillation. Which of the following actions is appropriate?
Answer
B. Deliver a second shock
21
A 36-year-old male undergoes a minimally invasive surgical procedure for the removal of tumors from the pituitary gland. On the second post-operative day, the nurse notices Urine output of 600 mL/hour with Serum sodium of 150 mEq/L. Which of the following drug is most appropriate in this condition?
Answer
B. Desmopressin
22
When assessing the patient with a stroke, the nurse observes that the patient speaks well, but their words do not make sense. It refers to which type of Aphasia
Answer
A. Wernicks Aphasia
23
Which of the following statements indicates the nurse has the right understanding of the drug Digoxin while explaining its action to the patient?
Answer
D. Digoxin increases the contractility of the heart muscle
24
A 26-year-Old male admitted with a chest wall injury. He has been on chest drainage for a hemopneumothorax, and the nurse notices no tidaling or bubbling in the underwater seal. Which of the following nursing actions is not appropriate?
Answer
A. Clamp and milk the chest tube to restore tidaling
25
A 23-year-old female is admitted to the Neurology ward with a known case of seizures for 5 years. The patient reports to the nurse that she experiences flickering lights and blurry vision. Which of the following nursing actions is appropriate?
Answer
D. Make the patient lie down on the bed in the lateral position with the head supported
26
Identify the common spore-forming bacteria that have increased potential for Nosocomial Infections
Answer
B. Clostridium difficile
27
Read the following assertion and Reason statements and answer appropriately Assertion Hypokalaemia may develop during the recovery phase of burns. (A): Reason (R) : This occurs because, as cell membrane integrity is restored during this phase, potassium shifts from the extracellular fluid back into the intracellular compartment.
Answer
A. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation
28
Venturi mask with yellow colour valve with oxygen flow rate of 8-lr/mt delivers what percentage of FiO2?
Answer
D. 35%
29
While initiating blood transfusion for a patient with anaemia all of the following nursing actions are considered appropriate EXCEPT
Answer
B. For the first 5 minutes, administer blood at 50 ml/mt
30
A 54-year-old man admitted with an Addisonian crisis. Which of the following clinical manifestations must the nurse attend to immediately?
Answer
B. Rapid and weak pulse
31
A teacher who believes education should transmit established clutural and moral values is most aligned with
Answer
A. Perennialism
32
In Bloom's taxonomy, which among the given objectives represent highest cognitive level.
Answer
C. Evaluate effectiveness of a ward policy
33
In outcome based nursing education the most defensible assessment strategy is one that primarily evaluates
Answer
C. Demonstrable competence against predefined outcomes
34
In OSCE, students rotate through stations testing communication, psychomotor skills and decision making. This assessment primarily ensures
Answer
B. Reliability and objectivity
35
A student learns skill more effectively after immediate feedback following each attempt during simulation. The best reflects which law of learning
Answer
D. Law of effect
36
In curriculum development, decision to align course outcomes, teaching, learning, activities and assessment methods so that they all target the same competency is best described as
Answer
B. constructive alignment
37
In course planning, which sequence is most logically appropriate?
Answer
A. objective content learning experience evaluation
38
A faculty member uses a structured patient scenario, gives learners predefined roles and later conducts debriefing. Which teaching method is being used?
Answer
D. Role play
39
A rubric clearly defines criteria and performance levels, minimizing examiner bias. Which quality is most enhanced?
Answer
C. Objectivity
40
A nursing school fails to maintain the required teacher student ratio, leading to compromised clinical supervision. Which guideline is most directly violated?
Answer
D. Regulatory staffing norms
41
Massive intravasation of blood into the uterine musculature in severe concealed placental abruption
Answer
A. Couvelaire uterus
42
The PUQE scoring is used to assess or identify
Answer
C. Vomiting in pregnancy
43
The best time for putting an episiotomy in assisted breech delivery is
Answer
B. Climbing at the perineum
44
Which among the following is the correct parameter of the modified fetal biophysical profile?
Answer
C. Nonstress test, fetal breathing, fetal movement, fetal muscle tone, and amniotic fluid volume
45
An obstetric technique used during breech delivery to deliver the baby’s legs when they are extended
Answer
A. Pinard maneuver
46
The Low Molecular Weight Heparin is preferred over warfarin in obstetric conditions due to the following reasons, except
Answer
B. Reduced risk of mechanical heart valve thrombosis
47
Methyldopa is avoided for postpartum hypertension management as it may
Answer
A. Increase the risk of postpartum depression
48
The PALM-COIN system of classification is used to identify the causes of
Answer
C. Abnormal uterine bleeding
49
The diagnostic procedure used to examine the cervix, vagina, and vulva for abnormal cells using a magnifying instrument
Answer
B. Colposcopy
50
Oocyte cryopreservation is
Answer
C. Freezing the human egg for future pregnancy
51
The continuous musical sound predominantly expiratory in nature due lower airway obstruction in children is termed as
Answer
C. Wheeze
52
The characteristic radiographic finding in staphylococcal pneumonia in children is
Answer
A. Pneumatocele
53
The staging criteria in the management of NEC in neonates is
Answer
A. Bell’s criteria
54
In embryological development of internal genitalia, AMH is responsible for:
Answer
A. Regression of mullerian ducts
55
According to Grosfeld classification of jejunoileal atresia, the apple peel/ Christmas tree appearance is seen in
Answer
C. Type III (b)
56
The normal sacral ratio that allows for objective evaluation of the sacrum in children and which forms the basis for determining the associated sacral defects in anorectal malformation is
Answer
A. 0.77
57
In Atrial Hypertrophy, Tall P waves indicating RAH is termed as:
Answer
B. P pulmonale
58
In TOF, the direction and the magnitude of the shunt through the VSD is primarily determined by
Answer
A. RVOT obstruction
59
In Sydenham's chorea, the severity of choreic movements is dependent on
Answer
C. Anti-neuronal antibodies
60
The pupil reaction in Hypoxic-Ischemic encephalopathy in Sarnat Stage 2 classification is
Answer
B. Miosis
61
Mr. A recently lost his mother. The nurse is assessing his emotional response to grief Which of the following statements by Mr. A would indicate that he is in the anger stage of grief?
Answer
B. ā€œWhy did this happen to me? It’s so unfair. God has been cruel to me.ā€
62
Which of the following statements about atypical antipsychotics are true? i. They are potent serotonin 5-HT2A antagonists ii. They have a high potential for extrapyramidal side effects iii. They are more effective in treating negative symptoms of schizophrenia
Answer
C. i and iii
63
The nurse is talking to a patient experiencing delusion of persecution and responds by saying, ā€œI find it hard to believe or accept what you are saying.ā€ Which therapeutic communication technique is the nurse using?
Answer
B. Voicing doubt
64
Mr. K attends an Alcoholics Anonymous (AA) group for the first time and meets Mr. B. who has been abstinent from alcohol for the past three years. This interaction makes Mr. K think that he too can stop drinking. Which therapeutic factor of group therapy is illustrated in this scenario?
Answer
C. instillation of hope
65
While planning substitution therapy for a patient with Alcohol Dependence Syndrome (ADS), the nurse notes that the patient has deranged liver function test (LFT) values. Which of the following would be the most appropriate for this patient?
Answer
A. Short-acting anti-anxiety drugs
66
Which of the following clusters of clinical features most accurately support the identification of opioid withdrawal syndrome? i. Lacrimation, rhinorrhea, and frequent yawning ii. Abdominal cramps and increased bowel movements iii. Euphoria, hyperactivity and decreased need for sleep iv. Slurred speech. sedation, and respiratory depression
Answer
A. i and ii
67
Which of the following nursing interventions in the community reflect primary prevention? i. Providing stress management sessions for high school students prior to examinations ii. Conducting awareness programs on substance abuse prevention among adolescents iii. Organizing support groups for relapse prevention among individuals with alcohol dependence iv. Counselling caregivers of elderly patients to manage ongoing health conditions
Answer
A. i and ii
68
While assessing cerebellar function, the nurse asks the patient to stand with feet together, eyes closed, and arms at the sides. The patient is unable to maintain balance for 10 seconds. What does this finding indicate?
Answer
B. Positive Romberg test
69
Which of the following are key provisions of the Mental Healthcare Act, 2017? i. Decriminalization of suicide ii. Provision for advance directives iii. Wider use of Electro Convulsive Therapy for minors iv. Appointment of a nominated representative for decision-making
Answer
A. i, ii and iv
70
Mr. J is going through a stressful situation and chooses to use progressive muscle relaxation to reduce his stress. What type of coping strategy is he demonstrating?
Answer
B. Emotion-focused coping
71
Which of the following is an example of secondary prevention?
Answer
B. Nurse conducting blood pressure screening camp
72
A nurse is conducting a breast cancer screening camp using mammography. The test is designed to detect almost all women who truly have the disease. This characteristic of the test refers to:
Answer
B. Sensitivity
73
The primary aim of Ayushman Bharat is
Answer
B. Reduces catastrophic health expenditure and improves access
74
An 18-month-old child was brought to the immunisation clinic. Which of the following vaccines and supplements should a child receive as per the National Immunisation Schedule of India?
Answer
A. DPT, Vitamin A, Oral Polio Vaccine, MR and JE (in the endemic area)
75
In the context of emerging diseases, what does ā€œspilloverā€ refer to?
Answer
C. The transmission of a disease from animals to humans
76
During a sanitary inspection of a rapid sand filtration plant, a decrease in filtration rate was observed due to a loss of head. Which method will you suggest to give head to water in such a situation?
Answer
D. Back washing of the sand bed
77
During a home visit, you have come across a patient with a patch on the skin which is lighter in colour than the surrounding skin, and when you keep the tip of your pen on it, you find that the patient has no sensation in it. What problem do you suspect for this patient?
Answer
B. Leprosy
78
A six-month-old child presenting with symptoms of cough, cold, respiratory rate more than 40 per minute and no chest in drawing. Under which classification of acute respiratory diseases will this child fall, as per the IMNCI program?
Answer
A. No pneumonia
79
What does the One Health concept primarily emphasise?
Answer
B. Linking human, animal and environmental health
80
Which of the following is not an indicator for measuring the Global Hunger Index (GHI)?
Answer
D. Child morbidity : the morbidity pattern of children under the age of five years
81
Which among the following is not the feature of Directing
Answer
Question Cancelled
82
The predominant Activity in Strategic planning involves i. SWOT analysis ii. Implementation of policies iii. Delegation of authority iv. Co- ordination of personnel
Answer
D. i only
83
Which among the following is the administrative specification prescribing the time sequences of work to be done?
Answer
C. Procedure
84
Which among the following functions are involved in formative role of supervision i. Managing materials and other resources ii. Managing the emotional labor of the profession iii. Setting standards and objectives iv. Organizing Orientation programme for staff
Answer
D. iv only
85
At what stage in the Tuckman’s model the group attain a feeling of cohesiveness, well organized and work independently
Answer
A. Performing
86
Which among the Quality evaluation system in health care focusses on Verification of professional competence and technical skill, assessing individuals meet minimum Professional standards
Answer
B. Credentialing
87
A benchmarking that compare the practices not only with direct competitors in the health market but also to compare the business performance with best performer to promote the innovative practices
Answer
C. Functional Bench marking
88
Arrange the steps of Recruitment in correct order i. Planning ii. Advertising and attracting the candidate iii. Evaluation and control iv. Searching and Screening
Answer
B. i, ii, iv, iii
89
The first activity of purchase cycle is
Answer
D. Identification of need
90
A Job description should include all the following components except i. Job title ii. Working conditions iii. Physical skill
Answer
C. iii only
91
Which of the following is a potential benefit of collective bargaining for nurses? i. Increased individual bargaining power ii. Higher nurse-to-patient ratios iii. Standardized wages iv. Improved compensation
Answer
C. iii and iv only
92
Which method is used for construct validation of a tool?
Answer
A. Factor analysis
93
Which among the following is the final, integrative stage of Grounded Theory where the researcher identifies a single core category to represent the main phenomenon?
Answer
B. Selective coding
94
Which among the following sampling method is suitable in presence of linear trend in the population?
Answer
A. Systematic sampling
95
Which among the following is the methods of performance appraisal in which employees is judged in terms of cost and contribution of the employees in the organization?
Answer
B. Human resource accounting method
96
Which of the following is defined as the process of selecting specific stimuli from the environmental while ignoring others?
Answer
D. Attention
97
Which psychometric assessment is specifically designed as a projective test to evaluate an individual's unconscious personality dynamics?
Answer
B. Thematic Apperception Test (TAT)
98
In the context of Aptitude vs. Intelligence, which statement is most accurate?
Answer
B. Aptitude is a specific capacity to succeed in a particular field, while intelligence is a global capacity to act purposefully
99
Which component is Emotional Intelligence (EI) involves the ability to delay gratification and stifle impulses?
Answer
C. Self-Regulation
100
Which community development programme in India specifically utilizes the Anganwadi worker to bridge the gap between social organization and mental hygiene for children?
Answer
C. Integrated Child Development services

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