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Kerala PSC Assistant Professor in Obstetrics and Gynaecology -Medical Education Department Previous Question Paper – 007/2021/OL

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Post NameASSISTANT PROFESSOR IN OBSTETRICS AND GYNAECOLOGY -MEDICAL EDUCATION DEPARTMENT
Question Paper Code007/2021/OL
Category Code010/2020
Date of Test15 March 2021
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
All are TRUE regarding Fetomaternal unit in pregnancy EXCEPT
Answer
B. There is a 17 alpha hydroxylase enzyme block in the fetus and placenta has very little 3 beta hydroxyl steroid dehydrogenase activity
2
All are TRUE statements about Corpus luteum of Pregnancy EXCEPT
Answer
D. The transitional luteo-placental shift takes place between the 10 week and 12 week
3
The FALSE statement regarding the glycoprotein hormone Human Chorionic Gonadotropin (HCG) is
Answer
B. Long half-life of hCG (48 hours) is due mainly to the greater amino acid content of beta subunit
4
Find out the FALSE statement regarding human parturition
Answer
B. There is a definite decline in peripheral blood levels of progesterone prior to parturition and not just a functional withdrawal
5
All the following statements about fetal lung surfactant are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
C. At about the 30th week of gestation, there is a sudden surge of dipalmitoyl lecithin, the major surfactant lecithin
6
All the following are TRUE statement about gonadal differentiation EXCEPT
Answer
D. Ovarian differentiation is considered the "default" pathway of sexdetermination the automatic result in the absence of a testis-determining factor
7
All are TRUE statements about Complete Androgen Insensitivity EXCEPT
Answer
D. Gonadectomy generally is best done before puberty because the overall risk for tumor development is 30%
8
The FALSE statement regarding Congenital Adrenal Hyperplasia is
Answer
B. Two-thirds of patients with 11β-hydroxylase deficiency exhibit hypotension and hypokalemia
9
The FALSE statement about Puberty in humans is
Answer
A. "diphasic" pattern of gonadotropin secretion from infancy to puberty results primarily from a high sensitivity to low levels of gonadal steroid feedback
10
All are TRUE regarding premature ovarian Insufficiency (POI) EXCEPT
Answer
D. Likelihood of achieving pregnancy after diagnosis of POI is about 60-80% and donor eggs are rarely required for IVF
11
The FALSE statement regarding PolyCystic Ovarian Syndrome (PCOS) is
Answer
D. Insulin resistance due to obesity also causes increased leptinsignalling and increased adiponectin levels, there by decreasing fatty acid oxidation and promoting lipotoxicity
12
Identify the FALSE statement about Metformin
Answer
C. Metformin has no effect on lipolysis and HDL cholesterol
13
All statements regarding Familial cancers are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
A. about 15-20% of women who develop ovarian cancer have mutations in BRCA1 gene
14
All are TRUE about Tamoxifen EXCEPT
Answer
C. Levonorgestrel intrauterine device (IUD) is not effective to protect the endometrium against hyperplasia and polyps in women using tamoxifen
15
Identify the FALSE statement about Endometrial Hyperplasia
Answer
D. Biopsy is not indicated when the clinical history suggests long-term unopposed estrogen exposure but the endometrial thickness is 5-12 mm
16
STRAW stage-3a is characterized by
Answer
B. menstrual cycles become shorter, FSH increases, while AMH, AFC and inhibin B declines
17
The FALSE statement regarding Menopausal Hormone Therapy (MHT/HRT) is
Answer
A. Continuous, combined estrogen-progestin regimens of HRT has more risk for endometrial cancer than long-term sequential regimens
18
All the statements about Emergency Contraception are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
A. Copper IUD can be used anytime during the preovulatory phase of the menstrual cycle and upto 8 days after ovulation
19
The FALSE statement about etonogestrel Implant (Nexplanon) is
Answer
C. Implants should not be inserted immediate postpartum
20
All the statements about reproductive ageing are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. Aging itself is thought to be a significant factor influencing uterine endometrial response to steroids and receptivity
21
Identify the FALSE statement regarding Test for Ovarian Reserve
Answer
D. A single elevated Day -3 FSH concentration (>10 IU/L) has high specificity for predicting poor response to stimulation or failure to achieve pregnancy
22
Find the FALSE statement
Answer
Question Cancelled
23
The FALSE statement regarding Male infertility is
Answer
C. Men with idiopathic infertility have significantly lesser CAG trinucleotide repeat lengths in androgen receptor gene
24
Risk factors for Ovarian Hyperstimulation Syndrome (OHSS) include all EXCEPT
Answer
B. Higher BMI
25
Preimplantation Genetic Testing (PGT) - Find the FALSE statement
Answer
A. Can be used to detect numerical chromosomal aneuploidies and monogenic disorders but not structural rearrangements
26
Medical management of endometriosis - Find the FALSE statement
Answer
C. Estrogen-progestin contraceptives is cytoreductive and halts progression of endometriosis in upto 90% of affected women when taken continuously
27
Find the INCORRECT statement regarding Ectopic pregnancy
Answer
C. if pregnancy does occur with an IUD in situ, the risk for ectopic pregnancy is as high as 80%
28
Medical Management of Ectopic pregancy-Find INCORRECT statement
Answer
C. Anti D immunoglobulin need be administered only tononsensitized Rh-negative women with ectopic pregnancy undergoing surgical management
29
Fetoplacental blood volume at term is approximately
Answer
A. 125 ml/kg of fetal weight
30
Find the INCORRECT statement regarding international guidelines on vaccination in pregnancy
Answer
D. HPV vaccination may be administered to high risk pregnant women after the first trimester of pregnancy
31
The FALSE statement regarding fetal biometry by USS is
Answer
D. To measure the AC, a circle is placed outside the fetal skin in a transverse image that contains the stomach, the kidneys and the confluence of the umbilical vein with the portal sinus
32
All the following are indications for fetal ECHO EXCEPT
Answer
C. maternal anti cardiolipin antibodies
33
Fetal renal pelviectasis - Find the CORRECT statement
Answer
C. the pelvis is typically considered dilated if it exceeds 4 mm in the second trimester or 7 mm at approximately 32 weeks' gestation
34
All the statements about Hydramnios (Polyhydramnios) are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. idiopathic hydramnios accounts for upto 30 percent of cases of hydramnios
35
Find the FALSE statement regarding teratogens in pregnancy
Answer
C. mono therapy with Levitracetam is associated with a 8-percent major malformation rate, which is slightly higher than that for the general population
36
All are TRUE regarding cell free fetal DNA EXCEPT
Answer
B. The proportion of cell-free DNA that is placental is called the fetal fraction and it composes approximately 50 percent of the total circulating cell-free DNA in maternal plasma
37
All are TRUE regarding Prenatal Diagnosis EXCEPT
Answer
B. Transabdominal amniocentesis is generally done between 11 and 14 weeks
38
All are TRUE regarding Anti D immunoglobulin EXCEPT
Answer
C. Routine postpartum administration of anti-D immune globulin to at-risk pregnancies within 72 hours of delivery lowers the alloimmunization rate by 50 percent
39
All are TRUE regarding Non-Stress Test NST EXCEPT
Answer
C. Loss of reactivity is most commonly associated with fetal hypoxia
40
All are TRUE regarding miscarriage EXCEPT
Answer
C. a threshold CRL of 5 mm with absent cardiac activity is used to diagnose non-viability or embryonic demise
41
In three tier system of CTG interpretation, category III abnormal CTG is all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Prolonged deceleration > 2 min but < 10 min
42
Absolute contraindications to neuraxial analgesia in labour include all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Refractory maternal hypertension
43
Proven contraindications for the use of PGE2 for induction of labour include all EXCEPT
Answer
B. bronchial asthma
44
McRobert's maneuver for relieving shoulder dystocia acts by all the following EXCEPT
Answer
D. increase in overall pelvic dimensions
45
All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. The negative predictive value (NPV) and positive predictive value (PPV) of a test does not vary with the baseline characteristics of population or prevalence of a disease
46
The following structures may be injured during sacrospinous ligament fixation EXCEPT
Answer
B. Superior gluteal artery
47
All the following statements about ureteric injury are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
B. Laparoscopic hysterectomies have the least rate of ureteral injuries and vaginal hysterectomies the highest
48
All are TRUE regarding Dermoid cysts of ovary EXCEPT
Answer
C. The risk of torsion with dermoid cysts is approximately 50%
49
All are TRUE regarding Endometrial Intraepithelial Neoplasia (EIN) EXCEPT
Answer
D. For women with EIN treated with progestins, recurrence risks approach 10%
50
According to the FIGO fibroid classification system type 3 is
Answer
C. Abuts the endometrium without any intracavitary component
51
All are TRUE about atypical leiomyomas EXCEPT
Answer
A. Mitotically active leiomyoma is defined by the presence of 5 to 10 mitoses/10 high-power fields and may be found in pregnancy and OCP users
52
Contraindications to Uterine Artery Embolisation (UAE) include all EXCEPT
Answer
D. willingness for hysterectomy
53
The pharmacologic treatments for vulvodynia can include topical lidocaine 5% with any of the following EXCEPT
Answer
C. combined oestrogen and progesterone pills
54
Find the INCORRECT statement about Chronic Pelvic Pain (CPP)
Answer
B. The specific location and density of pelvic adhesions correlates consistently with the presence of pain symptoms
55
Find the FALSE statement regarding elagolix
Answer
B. cannot produce a dose-dependent suppression of pituitary function and ovarian hormones like GnRH agonists
56
The FALSE statement regarding trichomonial vaginitis is
Answer
B. Less than 10% of men contract the disease after a single exposure to an infected woman
57
Find the FALSE statement regarding cervicitis
Answer
C. Nucleic acid amplification tests (NAAT) for gonorrhea and chlamydia, is not mandatory in all cases
58
All the statements regarding PID are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
A. About 75% of women with tubo-ovarian abscess do not respond to antimicrobial therapy alone and need drainage
59
Regarding genital ulcers find the TRUE statement
Answer
D. If inguinal buboes with no ulcer is present, the most likely diagnosis is LGV
60
Regarding testing in genital ulcers which of the following statements is FALSE
Answer
D. The diagnosis remains unconfirmed in more than half of patients (60%) with genital ulcers
61
Find the FALSE statement regarding HPV induced CIN.
Answer
A. HPV-16 infection is a very specific finding and can be found in only 2% of women with normal cervical cytology
62
The sensitivity of cervical cytology testing by Pap Smear for the detection of CIN 2 or 3 ranges from
Answer
B. 47% to 62%
63
Cervical conisation is indicated in all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Type I transformation zone
64
The following drugs are approved for treatment of Genitourinary Syndrome of Menopause (GSM) EXCEPT
Answer
C. Paroxetine
65
Following are the duties of a Registered Medical Practitioner under POCSO Act of India EXCEPT
Answer
D. Options 1) and 3)
66
All are TRUE statements regarding female sterilisation in India EXCEPT
Answer
A. Laparoscopic tubal ligation can be done concurrently with second-trimester abortion and in the post-partum period only by an expert operator
67
All the following statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. Incidence of wound infections could be decreased by hexachlorophene showers before surgery and shaving of the woundsite just prior to incision
68
All the following are TRUE about Enhanced Recovery-ERAS Protocol EXCEPT
Answer
D. Adequate pain relief with opiods
69
Find the CORRECT statement regarding laparoscopy.
Answer
C. The amount of gas transmitted into the peritoneal cavity should depend on the measured intraperitoneal pressure, not the volume of gas inflated
70
Find the FALSE statement.
Answer
D. A fasting period of 6 to 8 hours for solid food is recommended for uncomplicated parturients prior to undergoing Category I, II and III Caesarean sections
71
Findings consistent with an Acute Peripartum or intrapartum event leading to Hypoxic-Ischemic Encephalopathy are the following EXCEPT
Answer
D. Spastic diplegia and ataxia type cerebral palsy
72
Absolute contraindications to External Cephalic Version in Breech include all EXCEPT
Answer
A. Oligohydramnios
73
Which of the following is used to deliver an arrested after coming head in assisted breech delivery of chin to pubis rotated baby ?
Answer
C. Prague maneuver
74
Which is NOT a contraindication to vacuum extraction ?
Answer
C. Previous fetal scalp sampling
75
All the following are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
C. There is sufficient evidence to support primary elective cesarean delivery for the purpose of preserving fecal continence
76
Using WHO classification for Semen Analysis interpretation, choose the FALSE statement is
Answer
D. The normal lower limit for sperm concentration is 39 million/mL
77
Contraindications to using Gonadotropins for ovulation induction in infertile women include all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Kallmann syndrome
78
All the following are methods to decrease OHSS EXCEPT
Answer
A. HCG trigger
79
All statements about heterotopic pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. After treatment of a heterotopic gestation, the overall delivery rate for the intrauterine pregnancy is only 10-20%
80
All the following are independent prognostic variables in endometrial cancer EXCEPT
Answer
B. Peritoneal cytology
81
Find the INCORRECT statement regarding endometrial cancer.
Answer
B. Type I cancers arise from its precursor Endometrial Intraepithelial Carcinoma (EIC)
82
All are TRUE regarding Leiomyosarcoma EXCEPT
Answer
B. A history of prior pelvic radiation can be elicited in about 50% of women with uterine LMS
83
All the following are TRUE about TTTS EXCEPT
Answer
D. The discrepancies in amnionic fluid volumes of TTTS are also typically seen in Twin Anaemia Polycythemia Sequence (TAPS)
84
Find the FALSE statement regarding 2018 FIGO staging of cancer cervix.
Answer
C. The involvement of lymph nodes are not part of staging
85
The boundaries of paravesical space include all EXCEPT
Answer
C. The uterosacral ligament posteriorly
86
All are TRUE regarding serous borderline ovarian tumours EXCEPT
Answer
D. Borderline serous tumors may harbor foci of stromal microinvasion and if so, should be managed as aggressive serous carcinomas
87
In Kyoto (Querlou and Morrow) classification, Nerve sparing Radical Hysterectomy is
Answer
B. Type C1
88
All are TRUE about Germ cell tumours EXCEPT
Answer
B. Patients with stage IA, grade 1 immature teratoma need 4 cycles of BEP adjuvant therapy after surgery
89
All the following statements regarding Granulosa cell tumours of the ovary are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. Juvenile granulosa cell tumors of the ovary are rare and behaves more aggressively than the adult type
90
All the following statements about intrahepatic cholestasis of pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
C. total plasma concentrations of bilirubin exceed 8 mg/dL and serum transaminases exceed 500 in 30% patients
91
All the statements about sickle cell anaemia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
C. Routine prophylactic blood transfusions during labour is recommended to reduce painful crises in Sickle cell anaemia
92
All the statements about thrombocytopenia in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. Maternal platelet counts have strong correlation with fetal platelet counts and caesarean delivery is recommended if platelet count is < 50,000 on fetal blood sampling
93
All the following statements regarding diabetes in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
C. Ultra short acting insulin analogues starts acting in 30 minutes, peaks in 2 hrs minutes and is good for preprandial glycemic control in pregnancy
94
All the statements about thyroid in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
B. It is recommended that women avoid pregnancy for 1 month after radioablative therapy with iodine 131
95
All the statements about SLE in pregnancy are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
B. In the presence of anti-Ro and Anti-La antibodies, the incidence of fetal myocarditis and heart block is as high as 20%
96
All are TRUE about antiphospholipid antibody syndrome EXCEPT
Answer
B. Approximately 60 percent of patients with APS have a positive lupus anticoagulant LAC assay alone
97
All are TRUE about management of obstetric haemorrhage EXCEPT
Answer
C. Each single-donor apheresis six-unit bag raises the platelet count by approximately 5000/L
98
All are TRUE about USS features of Placenta Accreta Spectrum (PAS) EXCEPT
Answer
C. distance between the uterine serosa-bladder wall interface and the retroplacental vessels measures < 10 mm
99
USS has a sensitivity of ____________ in suspected abruptio placenta.
Answer
A. 24%
100
All are TRUE about COVID-19 in pregnancy EXCEPT
Answer
C. ICU admissions are not more common in pregnant women compared to nonpregnant women of the same age

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