| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Onco Pathology |
|---|---|
| Department | Medical Education |
| Question Paper Code | 130/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 687/2025 |
| Date of Test | 16 July 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Acanthosis nigricans as a paraneoplastic syndrome is most commonly associated with
Answer
A. Gastric adenocarcinoma
2
Which of the following malignancy is most strongly associated with Epstein- Barr virus in immunosuppressed patients?
Answer
B. Post-transplant lymphoproliferative disorder
3
Li-Fraumeni syndrome is caused by germline mutations in which gene ?
Answer
B. TP53
4
Cowden syndrome is associated with mutations in
Answer
B. PTEN
5
Which oral lesion carries the highest malignant transformation rate ?
Answer
C. Erythroplakia
6
Which colonic lesion has the greatest malignant potential ?
Answer
C. Villous adenoma
7
Which tumour marker screening is important in a patient with MEN 2 syndrome ?
Answer
D. Calcitonin
8
Adult T-cell leukemia/lymphoma is caused by
Answer
A. HTLV-1
9
Which High-risk HPV types are most commonly associated with cervical carcinoma ?
Answer
B. 16 and 18
10
Peutz-Jeghers syndrome is characterized by
Answer
B. Mucocutaneous pigmentation and hamartomatous polyps
11
Identify the types of Bio repositories
Answer
D. All of above
12
What is the role of secondary antibody in IHC staining ?
Answer
C. It binds to the primary antibody and ampliļ¬es the detection signal
13
When EQAS programme is not available or not suitable the laboratory should use following alternative methodologies except
Answer
B. Retesting of retained patient sample
14
What is the mechanism of JAK 2 gene ?
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
15
Following statement is true for EGFR gene
Answer
B. Activating mutations involving EGFR occur more commonly in females, never - smokers and Asians
16
Artiļ¬cial Intelligence in cancer pathology works on following principal
Answer
D. All of above
17
Founding clonal event in Hairy cell leukemia is
Answer
A. BRAF mutation
18
CKIT mutation are found in AML patients predominantly associated with following
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
19
Following are the established predictive biomarkers in colorectal carcinoma except
Answer
A. PDI/PDL1
20
Following statements are true except
Answer
A. In site hybridization for EBER analysis is a quantitative test
21
In grade group 2 Prostatic acinar adenocarcinoma which of the following patterns is a contraindication for active surveillance
Answer
B. Cribriform glands
22
In the DESTINY - Breast 04 and 06 trials eligibility for treatment with Antibody- drug conjugate in the metastatic setting was considered for
Answer
D. All of the above
23
In rectal adenocarcinoma tumour deposits in the pericolic fat in the absence of unequivocal lymph node metastasis are recorded as
Answer
A. N1c
24
The SEE-FIM protocol is applied for the grossing of
Answer
C. Fallopian tube
25
In Squamous cell carcinoma of the oral cavity the worst pattern of invasion-5 (WPOI-5) is considered when there is
Answer
D. All of the above
26
As per ASCO-CAP recommendation High-risk HPV testing is to be done for all newly diagnosed squamous cell carcinomas of
Answer
B. Oropharynx
27
Renal cell carcinoma subtype where WHO-ISUP grading is not applicable
Answer
D. Chromophobe RCC
28
The T stage of a 3.0cm invasive breast carcinoma with associated Paget disease of the nipple is
Answer
A. T2
29
P16 IHC performed for Head and neck cancers is considered positive when there is
Answer
C. Greater than or equal to 70% moderate-to-strong nuclear and cytoplasmic staining
30
MELF-type invasion on histology is most often seen in which of the molecular subtype of Endometrioid carcinoma
Answer
C. MMR-deļ¬cient EC
31
Which precursor lesion is classically linked to the development of p53- abnormal vulvar squamous cell carcinoma ?
Answer
A. Lichen sclerosis
32
An 8-year-old child presents with multiple pearly, dome-shaped cutaneous papules over the trunk and upper extremities. Histopathology reveals acanthotic epidermis with keratinocytes containing abundant intracytoplasmic eosinophilic inclusions. Which infectious agent is the most likely cause ?
Answer
B. Molluscum contagiosum virus
33
Which molecular subtype of breast carcinoma shows the closest association with a basal-like intrinsic gene expression proļ¬le ?
Answer
D. Triple-negative breast carcinoma
34
The most frequent molecular alteration identiļ¬ed in phyllodes tumors of the breast, particularly benign and borderline tumors, involves mutation in
Answer
B. MED12
35
A middle-aged woman diagnosed with invasive lobular carcinoma of the breast subsequently undergoes upper gastrointestinal endoscopy for dyspeptic symptoms. Histologic examination revels diļ¬use gastric carcinoma composed predominantly of signet ring cells. The coexistence of these malignancies raises suspicion for a hereditary tumor syndrome. What is the characteristic molecular defect underlying this syndrome?
Answer
C. Biallelic inactivation of CDH1 on chromosome 16q
36
An uncommon low-grade breast carcinoma demonstrates morphologic overlap with papillary Thyroid carcinoma, including abundant eosinophilic cytoplasm and inverted nuclear polarity. The lesion shows luminal diļ¬erentiation without evidence of thyroid lineage on immunohistochemistry. Which driver mutation is considered characteristic of this entity ?
Answer
B. IDH2 hotspot mutation
37
A woman undergoing evaluation for suspicious microcalciļ¬cations on screening mammography is Found to have proliferative breast lesions composed of ļ¬at epithelial atypia and atypical ductal hyperplasia on core biopsy. These precursor lesions are considered part of the low-grade luminal neoplastic pathway. Which molecular alteration is most characteristically implicated in progression to invasive carcinoma in this pathway ?
Answer
C. PIK3CA mutation with loss of chromosome 16q
38
A 15-year-old male child presents with persistent cervical lymphadenopathy. Excision biopsy reveals scattered large atypical mononuclear and multinucleated cells with prominent nucleoli admixed with a polymorphic population of lymphoid cells. The main diļ¬erential diagnoses include classical Hodgkin lymphoma and anaplastic large cell lymphoma. Which immunohistochemical marker panel would be most useful in diļ¬erentiating these two entities?
Answer
B. PAX5, CD45RB, CD15, ALK
39
A paediatric head and neck soft tissue tumor demonstrates primitive spindle and round cells with focal evidence of skeletal muscle diļ¬erentiation, including occasional strap cells. Immunohistochemistry is performed to conļ¬rm the diagnosis. Which of the following immunohistochemical markers is least likely-to demonstrate tumor cell positivity ?
Answer
D. Myoglobin
40
Fine-needle aspiration performed from an enlarged cervical lymph node in a young woman reveals a mixed lymphoid population admixed with numerous large histiocytic cells showing intact lymphocytes within their cytoplasm. Based on these cytologic ļ¬ndingings, what is the most likely diagnosis ?
Answer
C. Rosai-Dorfman disease
41
The Azzopardi eļ¬ect is classically seen in
Answer
B. Small cell carcinoma of lung
42
Most reliable marker for pheochromocytoma ?
Answer
B. Chromogranin A
43
Most adverse prognostic alteration in PTC
Answer
C. TERT promoter mutation
44
NUT-positive thymic carcinoma is associated with
Answer
C. NUTM1 rearrangement
45
Pulmonary invasive mucinous adenocarcinoma is commonly associated with
Answer
B. KRAS
46
Which of the following hereditary susceptibility genes is associated with the highest risk of metastasis in pheochromocytoma/paraganglioma?
Answer
C. SDHB
47
NOT a recognized HCC subtype
Answer
D. Clear cell cholangiocarcinoma
48
NET G3 is characterized by
Answer
B. Well-diļ¬erentiated morphology with high proliferative activity
49
Goblet Cell Adenocarcinoma most commonly arises in
Answer
C. Appendix
50
Worst prognosis mesothelioma subtype
Answer
C. Sarcomatoid
51
Which of the following is FALSE regarding Homologous recombination - deļ¬cient high grade Serous carcinoma ovary ?
Answer
C. Are platinum resistant
52
Acinar adenocarcinoma of prostate (Gleason score 7) is positive for ________ on immunohistochemistry.
Answer
A. NKX3-1
53
Which of the following testicular germ cell tumour is NOT derived from germ cell neoplasia in situ ?
Answer
B. Yolk sac tumour prepubertal type
54
ISUP grade of Clear cell renal cell carcinoma with foci of rhabdoid diļ¬erentiation
Answer
B. Grade 4
55
Which of the following molecular subtype of endometrioid carcinoma of uterus has excellent prognosis ?
Answer
A. POLE ultramutated
56
DlCER1 mutation is seen in which of the following ovarian tumours
Answer
A. Moderate/poorly diļ¬erentiated Sertoli-Leydig cell tumour with heterologous elements
57
Which of the following is a malignant neoplasm of implantation site intermediate trophoblast ?
Answer
C. Placental site trophoblastic tumour
58
The commonest molecular alteration seen in Endometrial stromal nodule
Answer
A. JAZF1 - SUZ12 fusion
59
IHC marker OCT 3/4 is NEGATIVE in
Answer
B. Yolk sac tumour
60
Which of the following is an HPV associated carcinoma of cervix ?
Answer
A. Invasive stratiļ¬ed mucin producing carcinoma
61
The essential diagnostic criteria for Glioblastoma IDH-wild type include all except ?
Answer
B. ATRX mutation
62
Flexner-Wintersteiner rosettes are a characteristic ļ¬nding in?
Answer
C. Retinoblastoma
63
A reliable surrogate IHC marker for molecular analysis of Giant cell tumor of bone is?
Answer
D. H3.3 G34W
64
Clear cell sarcoma of the kidney is characterized by the following mutations except ?
Answer
C. FUS-NFATC2 fusion
65
Among the meningioma subtypes the following are WHO grade 2 except
Answer
A. Papillary meningioma
66
FUS/EWSR1-DDIT3 gene fusions are seen in this sarcoma
Answer
A. Myxoid liposarcoma
67
The most common location of Medulloepithelioma of the eye is
Answer
B. Ciliary body
68
70-90% of cardiac rhabdomyomas have been reported in association with ?
Answer
D. Tuberous sclerosis
69
Which among these tumors commonly involve the epiphyseal region of long bones ?
Answer
B. Chondroblastoma
70
Which among these is a WHO grade 1 brain tumour ?
Answer
D. Subependymoma
71
Acute myeloid leukaemia with RUNX1::RUNX1T1 fusion is associated with which translocation ?
Answer
C. t(8;21)
72
The two molecular subtypes identiļ¬ed in Peripheral T cell lymphoma āNOS are
Answer
B. TBX21 and GATA3
73
A young woman presents with fever, enlarged cervical lymph node. Her lymph node biopsy reveals suppurative granulomas with stellate microabscesses with palisading histiocytes. What is the most likely causative organism ?
Answer
B. Bartonella henselae
74
Which of the following favors lymphoblastic lymphoma over Burkitt lymphoma ?
Answer
C. TdT positivity
75
Which of the following is caused by HTL V -1 ?
Answer
C. Adult T-cell leukaemia/lymphoma
76
The majority of classic follicular lymphomas harbour which genetic abnormality ?
Answer
C. t(14;18)(q32;q21)
77
Regarding ThinPrep and SurePath liquid-based cytology systems, which of the following statements is INCORRECT ?
Answer
D. Cellularity obtained with ThinPrep is generally higher than that obtained with SurePath because ļ¬ltration concentrates all cells present in the sample
78
Which of the following organisms is NOT speciļ¬cally reportable under the Bethesda System when identiļ¬ed on a cervical cytology specimen ?
Answer
D. Chlamydia trachomatis
79
Fine needle aspiration cytology of a salivary gland lesion shows numerous basaloid epithelial cells arranged in trabeculae and nests, intimately associated with stromal fragments. Hyaline globules are absent. Which cytomorphologic feature would most strongly favor basal cell adenoma over adenoid cystic carcinoma ?
Answer
C. Presence of peripheral palisading with stromal fragments invested by spindle-shaped myoepithelial cells
80
The Paris System diagnostic criteria for High Grade Urothelial Carcinoma include a minimum of
Answer
C. 5 to 10 abnormal cells
81
A tissue specimen intended for extensive immunohistochemical analysis is accidentally ļ¬xed in unbuļ¬ered formalin for a prolonged period. Which of the following is the most likely consequence ?
Answer
C. Excessive cross-linking leading to decreased antibody binding
82
Formalin pigment (acid hematin) is most likely to develop when
Answer
B. Acidic formalin is used, especially in blood-rich tissues
83
A liver biopsy shows PAS-positive cytoplasmic globules. After diastase digestion, the positivity persists. This ļ¬nding suggest the material is
Answer
C. Alpha-1 antitrypsin accumulation
84
A HER2 FISH assay demonstrates a HER2/CEP17 ratio of 2.5. This result is interpreted as
Answer
B. HER2 ampliļ¬cation
85
Which ļ¬ow cytometric ļ¬nding is most suggestive of a monoclonal B-cell population ?
Answer
C. Predominant expression of either kappa or lambda light chains
86
Frozen sections are generally cut at approximately -20Ā°C because
Answer
A. Most tissues achieve optimal hardness at this temperature
87
A positive control in IHC is primarily used to verify
Answer
C. Proper functioning of the staining procedure and reagents
88
In eļ¬usion cytology, reactive mesothelial cells may mimic malignant cells because they commonly exhibit
Answer
B. High nuclear-to-cytoplasmic ratio with nuclear enlargement and prominent nucleoli
89
A pleural eļ¬usion specimen contains malignant cells. The cell block shows positivity for CK7, BerEP4, and MOC31, but negativity for air calretinin and WT1. The most likely interpretation is
Answer
C. Metastatic adenocarcinoma
90
What is the major advantage of preparing a cell block from an eļ¬usion specimen ?
Answer
B. Allows paraļ¬n sectioning and ancillary studies such as IHC
91
Acute myeloid leukaemia with t(8;21) cytogenetic abnormality involves which gene fusion ?
Answer
A. RUNX1::RUNX1T1
92
A 5 year old boy present with fever, generalized lymph node enlargement. Bone marrow aspirate showed 90% Iymphoblasts. Which of the following genetic abnormality is most commonly associated with B -lymphoblastic leukaemia in this age group and carries an excellent prognosis ?
Answer
C. t(12;21)
93
Which of the following statements regarding FISH is false ?
Answer
A. FISH always require cells to be in metaphase to detect genetic abnormalities
94
Which of the following abnormalities are associated with favourable response in plasma cell myeloma?
Answer
A. t(11;14)
95
Which wavelength is used to measure absorbance of nucleic acids in a standard UV spectrophotometer ?
Answer
A. 260 nm
96
Which of the following option best describe the primary purpose of polymerase chain reaction ?
Answer
A. DNA ampliļ¬cation
97
Role of Taq polymerase in PCR?
Answer
C. Taq polymerase can withstand high denaturation temperature
98
Primary target in southern blotting
Answer
A. DNA
99
Purpose of initial gel electrophoresis in southern blotting
Answer
A. Separate fragments of DNA by their size
100
Primary function of dideoxyribonucleoside triphosphates (ddNTPs) in sanger sequencing
Answer
C. Act as chain terminator by blocking further phosphodiester formation
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