| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Ophthalmology - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 006/2020/OL |
| Category Code | 081/2019 |
| Date of Test | 19 February 2020 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A snellen visual acuity of 20/200 is equivalent to which of the following logMAR values.
Answer
A. 1.00
2
The corneal endothelium on slitlamp biomicroscopy is examined using
Answer
C. Specular reflection
3
Which of the following does not commonly cause glare?
Answer
A. lritis
4
Corneal haze in corneal edema is primarily due to
Answer
B. light scattering
5
All of the following statements are true regarding photoreceptors except
Answer
Question Cancelled
6
Sphincter and dilator muscle of iris is derived from
Answer
C. neuroectoderm
7
Regarding angle kappa, which is the correct statement?
Answer
C. It is the angle between pupillary axis and visual axis
8
Which of the following statements is true?
Answer
Question Cancelled
9
Stiles-Crawford effect refers to
Answer
C. greater sensitivity of retinal photoreceptors to perpendicular rays rather than oblique rays
10
All the following statements regarding aqueous humour are true except
Answer
C. Aqueous has relatively low ascorbic acid content
11
Regarding extra ocular movements - identify the false statement
Answer
D. The Right medial rectus & Left lateral rectus are antagonistic muscles
12
The following charts are used in the testing of contrast sensitivity except
Answer
C. Rosenbaums chart
13
In fourth nerve palsy
Answer
C. Vertical fusion range more that 3D suggests congenital palsy
14
In Electrophysiology, which of the following statement is true
Answer
Question Cancelled
15
The Enhanced depth imaging modality in OCT is primarily useful in studying
Answer
C. Choroid
16
All of the following are true regarding the lacrimal drainage system except
Answer
D. lipiodal is the agent used in scintillography
17
Regarding Anisocoria,
Answer
A. Increased anisocoria in dim light implies abnormality of the smaller pupil
18
CT vesus MRI, All of the following are true except
Answer
D. In MRI, bright signal within vessel indicates blood flow
19
Which of the following are true?
Answer
Question Cancelled
20
Results of streak retinoscopy performed on an adult patient at a testing distance of 67 cm is as follows: + 2D sph neutralises reflex when streak is horizontal (180); + 3D sph neutralises reflex when streak is vertical (90). Which of the following refraction is correct?
Answer
A. +0.50 Dsph + 1 Dcyl 90 degrees
21
Bruckner's test is
Answer
C. used in screening of strabismus & anisometropia in infants
22
Corneal wedge technique in gonioscopy is useful to identify
Answer
A. schwalbe's line
23
The following statements are true regarding Brimonidine except
Answer
A. selective alpha blocker
24
Charles Bonnet syndrome is characterised by all except
Answer
D. patients often have associated neurological/psychiatric illness
25
Pick out the wrong drug composition of prostaglandin analogues
Answer
B. Bimatoprost 0.02%
26
Preperimetric diagnostic Tests in glaucoma include all except
Answer
C. Glaucoma hemifield Test
27
Regarding Acanthamoeba, all are true except
Answer
C. Neomycin is effective against both Trophozoite & cysts
28
Vancomycin
Answer
C. Is poorly absorbed from gut
29
Statistical analysis in Octopus perimetry includes all except
Answer
A. pattern standard deviation
30
Properties of the drug Foscarnet includes all except
Answer
D. Neutropenia is a common side effect
31
Double circulation in FFA is seen in
Answer
B. Choroidal melanoma
32
Glaucoma in angle recession is due to
Answer
A. damage to Trabecular meshwork
33
Optic nerve glioma is most frequently associated with
Answer
B. Neurofibromatosis Type 1
34
Posner Schlossman syndrome is characterised by
Answer
D. few aqueous cells & keraticprecipates
35
The following statements are true about cilioretinal artery except
Answer
C. cilioretinal artery is a branch of ophthalmic artery
36
Selective laser Trabeculoplasty is a good option in the treatment of
Answer
B. Primary open angle glaucoma
37
Minimal invasive glaucoma surgery includes all except
Answer
C. AADI
38
Congenital stationary night blindness is a feature of
Answer
B. Fundus albipunctatus
39
The commonest type of intraocular tumour is
Answer
D. metastatic neoplasm
40
A 35 year old woman presents with an asymptomatic dome shaped orange mass in the midperipheral fundus with overlying exudative retinal detachment. A scan USG shows high anterior spike with high internal reflectively. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Answer
D. Circumscribed choroidal hemangioma
41
Which of the following neoplastic lesions of the conjunctiva is most likely to be associated with a systemic neoplastic disease?
Answer
C. Conjunctival lymphoma
42
Bull's eye maculopathy is a feature of all except
Answer
D. High myopia
43
In subluxated lenses, the following are true except
Answer
Question Cancelled
44
In corneal graft rejection, the following are true except
Answer
C. early graft failure (within first week) is mainly due to rejection
45
Recurrent corneal erosions is a feature of
Answer
B. Cogans microcystic dystrophy
46
The following are features of posterior sclerits except
Answer
D. associated with Harada's disease
47
In Phacoemulsification, nucleus fracture techniques includes all except
Answer
B. sandwich technique
48
Ocular manifestations of AIDS include all except
Answer
D. pars planitis
49
Heterochromia lridis is seen is all except
Answer
D. multiple sclerosis
50
Features of occult globe rupture include all except
Answer
D. Choroidal rupture
51
The usual angle subtended by the visual axis and anatomical axis of the eye is
Answer
B. 5 degree
52
The superior rectus muscle is inserted ___ mm behind the superior limbus
Answer
D. 7.7 mm
53
The primary and secondary actions of superior rectus muscle are
Answer
A. elevation, adduction and intorsion
54
The angle subtended between the visual axis and the orbital axis when the eye looks straight ahead at a fixed point is
Answer
B. 23 degree
55
The yoke muscle of left superior oblique is
Answer
C. right inferior rectus
56
In paretic squint
Answer
B. secondary deviation exceeds primary deviation
57
The following are tests for stereopsis EXCEPT
Answer
D. CARDIFF CARDS
58
During Hirschberg test, if the corneal light reflection is seen at the temporal border of a 4 mm size pupil the angle of deviation of the eye is about
Answer
B. 15 degree
59
The following statements about congenital / essential / infantile esotropia are true EXCEPT
Answer
Question Cancelled
60
The following surgical procedure weakens the action of an extraocular muscle
Answer
C. posterior fixation suture
61
The following statement regarding Treacher Collins syndrome is true EXCEPT
Answer
C. coloboma of upper eyelid
62
The following statement regarding capillary hemangioma is true
Answer
B. more common in females
63
Majority of the basal cell carcinoma lesions are seen in the
Answer
A. lower eyelid
64
The following statements are true about intradermal naevus EXCEPT
Answer
D. has malignant potential
65
The most common primary orbital malignancy in children is
Answer
A. embryonal sarcoma
66
In preseptal cellulitis, the following finding is not seen
Answer
B. proptosis
67
The following features are seen in adult patients with idiopathic orbital inflammatory disease EXCEPT
Answer
A. bilateral periorbital swelling
68
The characteristic S shaped ptosis is seen in
Answer
C. acute dacryoadenitis
69
The following structures pass through the superior orbital fissure EXCEPT
Answer
Question Cancelled
70
Pseudo - enophthalmos is seen in
Answer
D. microphthalmos
71
The most common tumour causing optico ciliary collaterals is
Answer
A. optic nerve sheath meningioma
72
The following statements are true about thyroid eye disease EXCEPT
Answer
B. males are affected more than females
73
The following findings are associated with neurofibromatosis type 1 EXCEPT
Answer
A. acoustic neuroma
74
A 10 years old girl presents to an eye hospital with anterior uveitis and polyarthritis. ANA test positive, Rheumatoid factor negative. Most likely diagnosis is
Answer
B. Juvenile idiopathic arthritis
75
A patient with giant cell arteritis can present with the following ocular findings EXCEPT
Answer
C. central retinal vein occlusion
76
Marfan's syndrome patient can present with all the following EXCEPT
Answer
C. hypermetropia
77
A patient presents with fever, parotid gland enlargement, uveitis and facial cranial nerve palsy. Most likely diagnosis is
Answer
B. Heerfordt syndrome
78
The following are diagnostic criteria for Behcet syndrome EXCEPT
Answer
B. arthritis
79
The following is TRUE in myasthenia gravis
Answer
A. positive ice pack test
80
The following features of vortex keratopathy are true EXCEPT
Answer
D. the keratopathy changes due to hydroxychloroquine are not usually reversible on cessation of treatment
81
The following statements regarding homocystinuria are true EXCEPT
Answer
D. autosomal dominant inheritance
82
In Trisomy 21 patients, the iris lesions are termed as
Answer
B. brushfield spots
83
The commonest cause of blindness in India is
Answer
D. cataract
84
The National Program for Control of Blindness was launched in India in
Answer
B. 1976
85
The chairman of the District Blindness Control Society is
Answer
C. District Collector
86
The following diseases are being managed under vision 2020 EXCEPT
Answer
Question Cancelled
87
At present in Kerala, the following activity is not carried out during an eye camp
Answer
D. cataract surgery
88
After death, the donated eye should be removed within
Answer
B. six hours
89
The main source of antigens for corneal allograft rejection is from
Answer
D. corneal endothelium
90
Donor corneoscleral button can be preserved in McCarey Kaufman medium for
Answer
B. four days
91
In severe Proliferative Diabetic Retinopathy, panretinal laser photocoagulation is first given to which part of the retina
Answer
C. inferior
92
Spatulated surgical needles are used in the following surgeries EXCEPT
Answer
D. dacryocystorhinostomy
93
The Tooke corneal knife can be used in all the following surgeries EXCEPT
Answer
A. full thickness keratoplasty
94
The McPherson forceps should not be used for
Answer
C. holding the scleral tissue during sclerocorneal wound suturing
95
Compared to bupivacaine 0.5%, lignocaine 2% has
Answer
D. none of the above
96
Wavelength of Nd Yag laser light is
Answer
D. 1064 nm
97
The following wavelength is not used during retinal laser treatment of macular lesions
Answer
A. 488 nm
98
Destruction of the pathogenic microorganisms and spores from surgical instruments is termed as
Answer
A. sterilisation
99
The National Program for Control of Blindness aims at reducing the prevalence of blindness by 2020 to
Answer
B. 0.3%
100
Khodadoust line is seen in
Answer
C. corneal graft rejection
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