| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Ophthalmology |
|---|---|
| Department | Medical Education |
| Question Paper Code | 064/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 124/2024 |
| Date of Test | 26 June 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following is not a test for stereoacuity?
Answer
C. Pelli-Robson test
2
The image of an object formed by reļ¬ection at a plane surface is not
Answer
C. enlarged
3
Which of the following is true regarding the image formed by a prism?
Answer
A. It is virtual and displaced towards apex
4
During retinoscopy, when neutralisation is reached, Light reļ¬ex is :
Answer
D. widest and fastest
5
A cycloplegic refraction is most helpful in which of the following cases?
Answer
A. 10 year old with headache
6
Anti reļ¬ective coating prevents reļ¬ection of light by which mechanism?
Answer
D. Destructive interference
7
Structures developed from surface ectoderm include all EXCEPT
Answer
B. Sclera
8
Bitemporal Hemianopia seen in Lesion at
Answer
B. Optic chiasma
9
Lens capsule is thinnest at the
Answer
B. Posterior pole
10
Theories of colour vision include all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Isomorphism
11
b-wave in ERG arises from
Answer
D. Muller cells
12
High metabolic activity is seen in which layer of Cornea?
Answer
B. Endothelium
13
Identify the correct option
Answer
D. The natural specular condition of the anterior corneal surface is transform to a diļ¬using surface by instilling ļ¬uorescein in some topography techniques
14
Regarding confocal microscopy which is FALSE
Answer
B. It can clearly visualise descemets membrane
15
Factors responsible for poor penetration of topical medication to eye are
Answer
Question Cancelled
16
Regarding povidone Iodine prophylaxis which is correct?
Answer
Question Cancelled
17
In ROP screening and treatment which is FALSE?
Answer
D. UBM in ROP is useful in managing stage 3 ROP
18
Find the right option
Answer
D. All are correct
19
Find the right option: i. Opthalmic ultrasound penetrates beyond mid orbit. ii. A scan given high internal reļ¬ectivity in solid tumours. iii. B scan can deļ¬nitely diagnose cavernous haemangioma, hydated cyst iv. B scan signal brightness shows the strength of the echo.
Answer
A. i and ii are correct
20
Functionally blind are those who
Answer
B. Have no useful vision even with vision enhancement techniques
21
Which is a false statement?
Answer
A. When critical angle is reached light ray does not bend and it follows a path parallel to the interface between the two media
22
In the process of emmetropization
Answer
A. Axial length increases by 5-6 mm
23
Which corneal dystrophy is associated with systemic hyper lipoproteinemia?
Answer
B. Schnyder corneal dystrophy
24
Following are causes of Poliosis except
Answer
D. Acquired syphilis
25
Which of the following corneal Topography ļ¬nding is not pathognomonic of Keratoconus?
Answer
Question Cancelled
26
Which is a 4th generation IOL formula?
Answer
A. Barrett
27
Cadera clinical classiļ¬cation is for
Answer
D. Ophthalmia Nodosa
28
Which of the following solutions is more eļ¬ective in irrigating the eye when a patient with chemical burns is brought to casualty?
Answer
C. Diphoterine > Balanced Salt Solution > Ringer Lactate > Normal Saline
29
Which of the following statements regarding Normal tension Glaucoma is correct?
Answer
D. All of the above
30
Regarding Ectopia Lentis the following statements are correct except:
Answer
B. Lens zonules are frequently intact and accomodation is retained in Homocysteinuria
31
Which is incorrect regarding dysphotopsia?
Answer
Question Cancelled
32
Which is the primary mechanism in the pathogenesis of age related nuclear cataract?
Answer
Question Cancelled
33
Cicatrical conjunctivitis associated with
Answer
D. All of the above
34
Kaye's dots are
Answer
B. White inļ¬ltrates, seen in the corneal donor tissue close to loose suture
35
Causes of Equatorial Staphyloma are all of the following except
Answer
C. Osteogenesis imperfecta
36
Pizza-pie retionopathy is characteristically seen in
Answer
B. CMV retinitis
37
Multiple Astrocytoma of the neural retina are most likely associated with
Answer
A. Tuberous sclerosis
38
Identify the INCORRECT answer concerning with Retinoblastoma.
Answer
A. The yearly incidence is highest in the third year of life
39
All of the following are typical clinical ļ¬ndings of choroidal nevi EXCEPT:
Answer
B. Most have irregular edges and a stippled surface
40
Which of the following statement is INCORRECT about Morning-glory disk anomaly?
Answer
C. Neuroļ¬bromatosis type 2 is commonly associated
41
Tobacco induced optic neuropathy can be seen with the deļ¬ciency of
Answer
B. Cobalamin (Vitamin B12)
42
Which condition is commonly found in association with vitreomacular traction syndrome?
Answer
D. Macular edema
43
What is the most common complication following vitreous liquefaction?
Answer
C. Posterior vitreous detachment (PVD)
44
All the following statements concerning Eales' diseases are true EXCEPT?
Answer
B. It occurs mainly in female
45
The Eye Disease Case-Control Study identiļ¬ed following abnormalities as risks factors for Branch Retinal Vein Occlusion (BRVO):
Answer
D. All
46
Telangiectasis in Coats disease more commonly occur in
Answer
A. Inferior and Temporal Quadrant
47
A 62-year-old female came to ophthalomology OPD with chief complaint of sudden, severe loss of vision in right eye with periocular pain. She had complaint of Headache, scalp tenderness and jaw claudication. On ocular examination her Optic disc was pale with normal cup. The probable diagnosis is:
Answer
B. Arteritic AION
48
Vitreous opacities like Asteroid hyalosis are usually deposition of:
Answer
D. Calcium containing lipid complex
49
The classical triad of Congential glaucoma include:
Answer
A. Epiphora, Blepharospasm and Photophobia
50
The intracranial abnormality typically associated with Sturge-Weber Syndrome is
Answer
C. Leptomeningeal angiomas
51
The Risk Factors for primary open-angle glaucoma include all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Choroditis
52
Which wavelength laser is typically used in Selective Laser Trabeculoplasty?
Answer
B. 532 nm frequency doubled Nd: YAG laser
53
The following statement is TRUE regarding alkali burns in eye
Answer
B. They cause saponiļ¬cation of cell membranes resulting damage to the tissue
54
The classic appearance of a choroidal rupture in cases of blunt ocular injury is
Answer
D. Linear or crescent-shaped white-yellow lesions concentric to the optic disc
55
Which of the following statements is true about the extraocular muscles?
Answer
D. Lateral Rectus muscles has the shortest muscle segment among the recti.
56
The antagonists in Levoelevation are
Answer
B. RSO, LIR
57
Cross ļ¬xation, inferior oblique overaction and asymmetry of optokinetic nystagmus are features of
Answer
C. Essential infantile esotropia
58
If the IPD is 5.5 cm, strabismus for near is 30 PD base out and for distance is 25 PD base out, the AC/A ratio is
Answer
A. 7.1 prism per dioptre
59
Pseudoesotropia is seen in all EXCEPT
Answer
B. hyperteleorism
60
Which of the following statements regarding Calhounz phases of exotropia is true?
Answer
Question Cancelled
61
Ocular torticollis can be measured with
Answer
D. Cephalodeviometer
62
The diagnostic test for dissociated vertical deviation is
Answer
D. All of the above
63
Fasanella Servat surgery is indicated in
Answer
Question Cancelled
64
paralysis of 3rd, 4th, 6th never and ophthalmic division of 5th cranial nerve localises the lesion to
Answer
C. cavernous sinus
65
A patient presents with unilateral proptosis which is compressible and increases on bending forwards. There is no thrill or fruit. MRI shows retrobulbar mass with enhancement. The likely diagonsis is
Answer
B. Orbital varix
66
Optic nerve glioma is associated with
Answer
A. Neuroļ¬bromatosis I
67
Assertion : Sebaceous cell carcinoma is the most common malignancy associated with recurrent chalazion. Reason : Lipogranulomatous changes occur in chalazion
Answer
B. Both statements are correct but reason is not the correct explanation
68
How many of the following statements are correct? 1. Medial orbital wall fracture is called blow in fracture. 2. Diplopia on horizontal gaze is diagnostic of blow out fracture. 3. Tear drop sign in CT scan is suggestive of fracture involving the posteromedial part of the orbital ļ¬oor. 4. Mydriasis is observed in blow out fracture
Answer
B. 2
69
Which of the following is/are correct about posterior segment involvement in systemic Coagulopathy Syndromes? i. Ischemia and hemorrhages are the primary result of these disorders. ii. Retinal vascular occlusion develops due to secondary cause(s). iii. Vitreous, intraetinal, sunretinal and choroidal hemorrhages are common ļ¬ndings. iv. Choroidal ischemia is a hallmark of systemic Coagulopathy Syndromes.
Answer
D. Only i, ii and iv
70
Which of the following diseases can develop Retinal Arteriolar Macroaneurysms (RAM)? i. Diabetes and hypertension ii. Rheumatoid arthritis iii. Leukemia iv. Terson's syndrome
Answer
C. Only i, ii and iii
71
Which of the following is/are true about leukemia? i. Leukemia inļ¬ltrates can involve the retina, optic never, vitreous and choroid. ii. White - centered retinal hemorrhages always represents leukemia inļ¬ltration at the centre. iii. Peripheral retinal microaneurysms are a feature of chronic leukemias, rather than acute leukemias. iv. Presence of macular hemorrhage in these patients increases a ļ¬ve fold relative risk of developing intracranial hemorrage, as compared to those with nonmacular hemorrhages.
Answer
C. Only i, iii and iv
72
Which of the following is/are true about Horner's syndrome? i. Small pupil, mild ptosis of upper lid (<2mm) and anhidrosis form the triad ii. There is ipsilateral ptosis of both upper and lower lids. iii. There is low intraocular pressure in the ipsilateral eye. iv. Apraclonidine test may be negative in early cases.
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
73
Which of the following is/are correct about Ocular Myasthenia Gravis (OMG)? i. Cogan's lid twitch test is a highly sensitive (95%) and speciļ¬c test (85%). ii. Ice pack test is highly sensitive and speciļ¬c test, especially for ptosis (unilateral or bilateral), than extrocular involvement. iii. Lid retraction is extremely common in OMG.
Answer
B. Only ii
74
Th 2016 American Academy of Ophthalmology Guidelines form chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine toxicity screening recommend the following : i. Baseline fundus examination and ancillary test within one year of initiation of therapy. ii. Annual screening is often recommended after 5 years of therapy. iii. Ancillary testing including SD-OCT and automated Humphrey visual ļ¬led (HVF) of 10 to 2 is appropriate for Asian patients.
Answer
A. Only i and ii
75
Which of the following drugs can cause Vortex Keratopathy? i. Tamoxifen ii. Chloroquine and hydroxychloroquine iii. Amiodarone iv. Ibuprofen
Answer
D. All of the above i, ii, iii and iv
76
The following is/are true about diabetic retinopathy: i. About one-third of people with diabetes mellitus (DM) globally are aļ¬ected with diabetic retinopathy (DR). ii. The risk of DR increase to about 75% after 15 years of DM diagnosis. iii. Duration of DM and genetic factors are major risk factors for development and progression of DR. iv. The most recommended target level of HbA 1c is 6% for prevention of DR progression
Answer
B. Only i and ii
77
Which of the following is/are correct about National Program for Control of Blindness and Visual Impairment (NPCBVI)? i. It was launched in 1976 as a 50% centrally sponsored scheme. ii. The goal of the program was to reduce the prevalence of blindness from 1.4% to 0%. iii. As per the guidelines for Eye surgeons given on NPCBVI website, the phaco needles for every ļ¬ve cases and sleeves and irrigation/aspiration (I/A) handpieces for every one case should be sterilized for phacoemulsiļ¬cation.
Answer
C. Only iii
78
Which of the following is/are true about genetic ocular disorders? i. Granular and Reis-Buckler dystrophies are associated with TGFB1 gene. ii. Peters anomaly, Juvenile Glaucoma and aniridia are associated with PAX6 gene. iii. Both CYP1B1 and LTBP2 are associated with congenital glaucoma. iv. Familial cases of congenital cataracts comprise atleast one-third of all.
Answer
D. Only i, iii and iv
79
Which of the following is/are true about Gyrate Atrophy of Retina and Choroid? i. Poor night vision, high myopia. ii. Hyperornithinemia and peripheral scalloped, well demarcated chorioretinal atrophy? iii. Autosomal Dominant Inheritance iv. The OAT (ornithine-delta-aminotransferase) enzyme is linked to chromosome 10.
Answer
C. Only i, ii and iv
80
Which of the following is/are correct as per the Standards of EYE BANKING in India 2020? Among the 3-tier structure [Eye Bank Training Centers (EBTCs), Eye Banks (EB) and Eye Retrieval Centers (ERCs)] of the Eye banking system, the following personnel are needed at all 3 levels: i. Medical Director ii. Eye Bank Technician iii. Eye Donation Counsellor iv. Eye Bank Manager
Answer
B. Only ii and iii
81
Which of the following is/are true about Eye Donation? i. Eye Donation fortnight is observed from 26th August to 8th September. ii. Partners of Eye Bank Association of India include Orbis, Sightsavers, Care Group and Allergan India Limited. iii. The ļ¬rst Eye Bank was started in Regional Institute of Ophthalmology, Chennai, in 1945.
Answer
D. All of the above i, ii and iii
82
Which of the following is/are true, as per All India Ophthalmological Society (AIOS) Task Force Guideliness to prevent intraocular infection after cataract surgery? i. 'Cluster endophthalmitis' refers to infection in two or more cases operated on same day in same operating theater (OT). ii. For mass surgeries, the upper limit of the number of surgeries that can be operated by a single surgeon within a session of 4 hours is 25. iii. In case of cluster infection outbreak, there are 4 levels of 'alerts' (green, amber, yellow, red).
Answer
C. Only i and ii
83
What is the power of Abrahmas laser iridotomy lens?
Answer
C. 66 D
84
Mechanism of action of excimer laser is
Answer
C. Photoablation
85
The main trunk of Facial nerve is blocked by
Answer
B. Nadbath - Rehman block
86
Out of the following which anaesthetic agent cause rise in intraocular pressure?
Answer
A. Ketamine
87
Average duration of retention of C3F8 in eye after intravitreal injection
Answer
D. 38 days
88
Suture material of choice for penetrating keratoplasty is
Answer
B. Nylon
89
Wavelength of femtosecond laser used for FLACS is
Answer
D. 1053 nm
90
Which of the following tissues can be used for posterior lamellar reconstruction of eyelid?
Answer
D. All the above
91
Pre tarsal show is the
Answer
A. Distance between lid margin and skin fold
92
What is false about Aspiration ļ¬ow rate (AFR) in phacoemulsiļ¬cation?
Answer
C. High AFR results in dispersion of lens material away from phaco tip
93
Posterior capsular opaciļ¬cation is more common with
Answer
D. Rigid IOLs
94
Which of the following statements is/are correct about IOL power calculation? i. For short eyes Hoļ¬er Q formula is recommended ii. Immersion techniques are superior. iii. Soft Contact lens wearers need not discontinue them before axial length measurement. iv. Optical biometers use the principal of light interferometry.
Answer
D. i, ii and iv are correct
95
The eļ¬ectiveness of Selective Laser Trabeculoplasty in managing Glaucoma was studied in which landmark trial?
Answer
B. LIGHT trial
96
What is not a MIGS procedure?
Answer
D. Visco canalostomy
97
Probable signs of poor drainage in trabeculectomy include all except
Answer
A. Diļ¬use shallow bleb
98
Properties of silicone oil include
Answer
B. Surface tension is lesser than gas
99
Who discovered 23 guage vitrectomy?
Answer
D. Eckardt
100
Which visualising system in vitreoretinal surgery does not require an image inverter mounted in the operating microscope?
Answer
B. EIBOS
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