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Kerala PSC Assistant Professor in Oral Pathology and Microbiology – Kerala Medical Education Service Previous Question Paper – 121/2024/OL

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Post NameAssistant Professor in Oral Pathology and Microbiology - Kerala Medical Education Service
Question Paper Code121/2024/OL
Category Code292/2023
Date of Test26 November 2024
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
The tooth buds for the permanent dentition is to appear normally about the third month. On which aspect of primary teeth it should appear and develop to avoid a possible developmental Anomaly?
Answer
C. Lingual Aspect
2
A median cleft of the upper lip probably represents
Answer
A. the failure of the primordia of the median nasal process to fuse into a single globular process
3
A cyst which classically moves during swallowing or on protrusion of tongue is
Answer
C. Thyroglossal duct cyst
4
Defeciencies of the tongue musculature such as Microglossia may be the result of
Answer
Question Cancelled
5
A developmental cyst that possibly develop from the remnants of the embryonic nasolacrimal rod is
Answer
C. Nasolabial cyst
6
Nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome is caused by mutation of
Answer
A. PTCH gene; chromosome 9q22.3-q31
7
Immunohistochemical studies on Desmoplastic pattern of Ameloblastoma have shown an increased production of which of the following cytokines?
Answer
B. Transforming Growth Factor-beta (TGF-β)
8
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect about calcifying epithelial odontogenic tumour (CEOT)? (i) About 2/3rd of all reported cases have been found in the mandible. (ii) Radiographically, the unilocular pattern is commonly encountered in the maxilla. (iii) The tumour is frequently associated with an impacted tooth, most often a mandibular molar. (iv) The margins of the lytic defects are often scalloped.
Answer
D. All are correct statements
9
Which of the following statements is incorrect about a dentigerous cyst?
Answer
D. Dentigerous cyst is the most common odontogenic cyst
10
Which of the following statement is correct about Odontogenic Keratocyst (OKC)? (i) OKC show significantly greater expression of PCNA and Ki67, especially in the suprabasilar layer. (ii) Over 85% of OKC associated with nevoid basal cell carcinoma syndrome show mutation of PTCH1 gene. (iii) Loss of heterozygosity for various tumour suppressor genes like FHIT, LATS2 are seen OKC.
Answer
B. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
11
Which of the following is not a major diagnostic criterion for the Gorlin syndrome?
Answer
C. Preaxial or postaxial polydactyly
12
EWSR1 gene mutations are commonly found in
Answer
B. Clear cell odontogenic carcinoma
13
'Stepladder' pattern is seen in the radiographic picture of
Answer
A. Odontogenic myxoma
14
Cannons disease is inherited as
Answer
A. Autosomal dominant trait
15
Cell within a cell phenomenon is seen in
Answer
A. Witkop-Von Sallmann syndrome
16
STK11 gene mutation is responsible for most cases of
Answer
C. Peutz-Jeghers syndrome
17
The direct immunofluorescence studies of mucous membrane pemphigoid shows
Answer
C. Positive-basement membrane zone
18
Paraneoplastic pemphigus affects patients who have a neoplasm, usually
Answer
C. Chronic lymphocytic leukaemia
19
Osteitis fibrosa cystica is seen in
Answer
B. Hyperparathyroidism
20
Which of the following statement is incorrect about Giant cell arteritis?
Answer
C. The deep temporal artery is the most commonly affected site
21
The common causative organism of cellulitis is
Answer
A. Streptococci
22
Which of the following tissue is radioresistant?
Answer
D. Thyroid
23
Acrodynia is
Answer
B. Mercury toxicity
24
Bronze diabetes is seen in;
Answer
A. Iron overload
25
The iron requirement of an adult female is approximately
Answer
B. 20 mg/day
26
Following are the hamartomatous lesions of the oral cavity EXCEPT
Answer
D. Fibroma
27
Microscopic feature exhibiting the presence of 'Koilocytes' in the superficial layer of epithelium is suggestive of
Answer
A. Squamous papilloma
28
Which one of the following is considered as 'Mixed tumour' among the salivary gland tumours?
Answer
D. Pleomorphic adenoma
29
The tumour of smooth muscle origin is
Answer
C. Leiomyoma
30
The microscopic feature exhibiting 'Shredded carrot' like appearance, that are separated from the cells by mucoid material is a feature of
Answer
B. Neurofibroma
31
Following are the architectural changes observed in relation to the epithelial dysplasia EXCEPT
Answer
D. Abnormal mitotic figures
32
High urinary excretion of vanillylmandelic acid (VMA) suggests
Answer
B. Melanotic neuroectodermal tumour of infancy
33
50 year old male patient presented with a dome shaped solitary nodule on vermillion border of lip with smooth shiny surface and central depressed crateriform ulceration or keratin plug is suggestive of
Answer
C. Kerato accanthoma
34
Clinical feature 'Eye to heaven' appearance is found in
Answer
D. Cherubism
35
The synonym (other name) of Schwannoma is
Answer
C. Neurilemmoma
36
The most common early sign the 'Coup de sabre' is a clinical feature found in
Answer
B. Facial hemiatropy
37
Microscopic feature exhibiting the tiny linear or arc shaped bodies, which are refractile and non birefringent hyaline bodies or Rushton bodies present in the epithelium of
Answer
Question Cancelled
38
Loss of neural crest cell precursors resulting in reduced number of neural crest cells migrating in to the developing craniofacial complex results in
Answer
A. Treacher collins syndrome
39
Which of the following statement is CORRECT regarding the histopathological zones of dentinal caries
Answer
C. Focal coalescence of adjacent tubules and ovoid area of destruction- liquefaction foci is found in advanced dentinal caries
40
Trench mouth refers to
Answer
B. Necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis
41
An occlusal radiograph reveal focal over growth of bone on the outer surface of the cortex as reduplication of the cortical layers of bone associated with carious tooth is suggestive of
Answer
A. Garre's chronic non suppurative sclerosis osteomyelitis
42
Intra oral gumma most commonly involving the tongue or palate is a feature of
Answer
A. Syphilis
43
A multisystemic condition with oral manifestation 'strawberry gingivitis' is suggestive of
Answer
C. Wegener's granulomatosis
44
Localised or generalized infection caused by the dissemination of micro-organisms or toxic products from a focus of infection is referred to as
Answer
B. Focal infection
45
Tooth ache, experienced by astronauts, submarine crews and deep sea divers, some times associated with recent filling/restoration, is referred as
Answer
A. Aerodontalgia
46
The tongue exhibiting a white coating with oedematous and hyperaemic fungiform papilla, appearance of 'Strawberry tongue' is suggestive of
Answer
C. Scarlet fever
47
Following are the synonyms (other name) of Candidiasis EXCEPT
Answer
D. Oral myiasis
48
The most accepted theory in etiology of dental caries
Answer
B. Miller's chemoparasitic theory
49
Which of the following statement is WRONG regarding Dental plaque?
Answer
C. Salivary pellicle is visible and contains bacteria
50
Lesion that is less commonly associated with HIV is
Answer
B. Nectrotizing ulcerative stomatitis
51
All of the following are involved in tumor metastasis cascade except
Answer
C. Tyrosine kinase
52
Tumor suppressor genes implicated in human cancers include the follwing except
Answer
C. ERB-B
53
Mycosis fungoides is
Answer
B. T cell lymphoma
54
Most common cancer arising in a patient with chronic osteomyelitis is
Answer
Question Cancelled
55
Upregulation of which of the following has been noted on tumor cells which help them evade immune surveillance
Answer
Question Cancelled
56
Which of following gene is translocated in Burkitt lymphoma
Answer
C. MYC
57
The subtype of Rhabdomyosarcoma which frequently involves head and neck region is
Answer
B. Embryonal
58
The most common primary site for cancer to metastasize to oral soft tissue
Answer
D. Lung
59
Which cytokine is considered as most important myeloma growth factor
Answer
A. IL-6
60
Hypothesis of dysfunctional cadherin - catenin complex important for intercellular adhesion is proposed for
Answer
C. Spindle cell carcinoma
61
The following tumor is characterised by biphasic pattern of growth
Answer
C. Synovial sarcoma
62
E6 protein of high risk HPV affects the following protein there by promotes carcinogenesis
Answer
A. TP53
63
The precancerous lesion with highest malignant Potential is
Answer
Question Cancelled
64
Herring bone pattern of fibrous tissue is found in
Answer
A. Fibrosarcoma
65
Most common site for adenoid cystic carcinoma is
Answer
B. Minor salivary glands
66
Degradation of extracellular matrix is brought about by following EXCEPT
Answer
B. Free radicals
67
All are methods of cell proliferation analysis EXCEPT
Answer
Question Cancelled
68
Most common clinicopathologic type of melanoma is
Answer
D. Superificial spreading melanoma
69
Nasopharyngeal carcinoma is caused by
Answer
A. HHV 4
70
Hall mark mechanism of tumor suppressor gene Inactivation
Answer
A. Loss of heterozygosity
71
In which phase of cell cycle does the nuclear envelope and nucleoli disappear?
Answer
B. Prophase
72
Which of the following is used for visualizing live cells?
Answer
Question Cancelled
73
Resolving power of a microscope can be increased by
Answer
A. Increasing numerical aperture and using shorter wavelength light
74
The mass of a bacterial cell wall can be best assessed by which of the following?
Answer
A. Interference microscope
75
Which of the following combination of statements is true of ELISA? (i) Uses antibodies labelled with enzymes (ii) Color change indicates presence of target antigen (iii) It is not possible to use monoclonal antibodies (iv) Technique does not need separation of free and bound antigens
Answer
C. (i) and (ii)
76
Which stain is best suited to demonstrate elastic tissue?
Answer
D. Verhoeff's stain
77
Amyloid demonstrated by Congo Red, emits apple green birefringence when viewed under
Answer
A. Polarizing light microscope
78
The specificity of an antibody is due to
Answer
D. The variable portion of the heavy and light chain
79
Which of the following chemicals is used for colour restoration of museum specimens?
Answer
A. Ethanol
80
Which among the following can best demonstrate epithelial mucins?
Answer
C. Mucicarmine stain
81
Which of the following statement is incorrect about the features of Coronavirus?
Answer
A. Non-Enveloped RNA virus
82
During the process of fixation all of the objectives are met EXCEPT
Answer
B. Facilitates autolysis
83
What is the ratio of the volume of fixative to tissue in tissue processing?
Answer
B. 10:1
84
Which of the following statement is incorrect about polycythemia?
Answer
A. Low blood viscosity
85
The process by which the recombinant DNA is introduced into the recipient host cell is termed
Answer
C. Transformation
86
Which among the following is not a natural compound used in histopathology?
Answer
B. Eosin
87
During heating in PCR procedure which enzyme prevents denaturation of enzymes?
Answer
A. Taq polymerase
88
Which cell organelle conserves DNA for the longest period?
Answer
C. Mitochondria
89
The following procedure is not a step, in cell culture procedure
Answer
B. Quenching
90
HLA complex of genes on chromosome 6 encodes for which proteins?
Answer
D. Cell surface proteins
91
The following agents are used for freezing sections for cryostat EXCEPT
Answer
D. Liquid paraffin
92
Which method is used for the accurate assessment/quantification of DNA content in cells?
Answer
Question Cancelled
93
"Court strictures Vis-a-Vis Medical Officer" is based on disapproval of some aspect, before the court of law (i) Conduct of witness (ii) Adequate qualification (iii) Medical evidence (iv) Scientific facts
Answer
Question Cancelled
94
Developing teeth, the apposition of dentine and enamel take place at the approximate rate/day is
Answer
C. 4 microns
95
Tests useful for "Saliva" along with baccal epithelial cells" in alleged crime cases are (i) RNA based assays (ii) Absorption - elution test (iii) Phadebas test (iv) Getller's test
Answer
Question Cancelled
96
Following are the causes of ring fracture of skull (i) Fall from height landing on feet (ii) Forceful blow on forehead (iii) Sudden violent rotation of body on cervical spine (iv) Forceful blow on chin
Answer
D. (i) and (iv) are correct
97
Which of the following is NOT a component of a standard PCR reaction mixture?
Answer
D. Restriction enzymes
98
Which of the following is not used as a vector in recombinant DNA technology?
Answer
A. Eco RI
99
The term pleuripotency indicates
Answer
A. The ability of a cell to differentiate into all cell types of the body
100
The total possible number of reading frames present in a DNA molecule is
Answer
C. Six

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