| Post Name | ASSISTANT PROFESSOR IN ORTHOPAEDICS - MEDICAL EDUCATION SERVICES |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 006/2021/OL |
| Category Code | 015/2020 |
| Date of Test | 10 March 2021 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A person with posterior interosseous nerve palsy
Answer
B. On active dorsiflexion the wrist goes into radial deviation
2
Using Hertel's criteria the humeral head has a bad prognosis when the
Answer
C. medial hinge is displaced 3 mm
3
Vickers ligament is seen in almost all operated cases of
Answer
D. Madelung deformity
4
The muscle that is acting when there is a positive Froment's sign is
Answer
D. Flexor pollicis longus
5
Bubbles and strips appearance in the X-ray is seen in
Answer
B. monostotic fibrous dysplasia
6
Except for the pattern of inheritance homocystinuria closely mimics
Answer
C. Marfan syndrome
7
Ludloff sign is positive in avulsion of
Answer
D. lesser trochanter
8
The length of the arm segment during a clinical examination is measured from
Answer
C. angle of acromion to lateral epicondyle
9
Radiocarpal subluxation is a salient feature of which of these fractures ?
Answer
B. Barton's fracture
10
Which of the following joints are together called Chopart's joint ?
Answer
C. talonavicular and calcaneocuboid
11
Muscle of the posterior compartment of leg most prone for Volkmans ischaemic contracture is
Answer
A. flexor hallucis longus
12
In a long standing case of compound palmar ganglion one can get all the following except
Answer
A. ulnar nerve symptoms
13
While fixing a subtrochanteric fracture with a DCS the entry point of the guide wire for the DCS screw should be
Answer
B. At the junction of the anterior one third and posterior two thirds of the greater trochanter
14
Subchondral compression of the bone at the angle between the tibial plafond and the base of the medial malleolus is seen in medial malleolar fractures involved in
Answer
C. adduction injury
15
Cole's method is used to fix
Answer
B. tendon to bone
16
While exposing the proximal fourth of radius through the Henry's approach the supinator can be safely
Answer
A. incised medially and retracted laterally
17
Functional position of the wrist is
Answer
D. twenty degree dorsiflexion
18
To expose the radial nerve in a posterior approach to the humerus one has to dissect
Answer
D. between the long and lateral head of triceps
19
Pulvertaft technique is used for suturing a tendon of
Answer
A. Small diameter to one of large diameter
20
In Axer osteotomy to get containment of the anterolateral segment we should do
Answer
D. a subtrochanteric osteotomy with adduction and external rotation of the distal fragment
21
Milch type 1 fracture is Salter Harris
Answer
C. type 4
22
Regarding excision of carpal bones i. lunate may be excised by itself. ii. when triquetrum is excised both lunate and scaphoid are also excised. iii. when scaphoid is excised both triquetrum and lunate are also excised. iv. excising pisiform is unnecessary.
Answer
D. all the statements are correct
23
In Enneking's staging, Stage 2B is
Answer
A. high grade extracompartmental
24
If the MESS ischaemia score is doubled, then the time of ischaemia is more than
Answer
C. 6 hours
25
Multiple enchondromatosis when associated with haemangiomas of the overlying soft tissues is called
Answer
B. Maffucci's syndrome
26
Heuter schede approach is used for draining the
Answer
A. hip joint
27
Fallen fragment sign is pathognomonic of
Answer
C. unicameral bone cyst
28
Clutton's joint is classically,
Answer
C. asymptomatic symmetrical synovitis
29
Which of the following is intertrochanteric medial displacement osteotomy ?
Answer
B. Mc Murray's Osteotomy
30
Squaring of the patella and widening of the intercondylar notch are classically seen in
Answer
D. Haemophilic arthritis
31
Cozen's test is positive in
Answer
B. Tennis elbow
32
Regarding atraumatic shoulder instability which of the following is false
Answer
C. unilateral
33
Radial dysplasia is associated with
Answer
D. All of the above
34
Siffert-Katz sign is primarily due to
Answer
C. Posteromedial defect in the medial tibial condyle
35
Which is a cancellous insert graft ?
Answer
B. Nicoll graft
36
Fairbank's triangle is typically described in
Answer
B. Congenital coxa vara
37
In which of the following the hip is dislocated in stage 1 of the test
Answer
A. Barlow's test
38
When tibialis anterior and posterior are weak and the peronei are strong in the orthosis we should give ?
Answer
A. outside iron and inner T strap
39
Gallows traction without posterior gutter splint can be given upto the age of _____ years.
Answer
B. 2
40
In congenital pseudarthrosis tibia march fracture is seen in Boyd type
Answer
A. 4
41
Chicken wire calcification is seen in
Answer
B. Chondroblastoma
42
In compression arthrodesis of the ankle, the relation of the distal pin to the transverse axis of the body of talus should be
Answer
B. anterior to the axis
43
The amputation in which the calcaneum is rotated and fused with the tibia is
Answer
D. Pirogoff's
44
Regarding Wallerian degeneration which of the following is false ?
Answer
A. Also called secondary degeneration
45
When the ulnar nerve is totally divided at the wrist the interossei can act through
Answer
B. Richi-Cannieu anastomosis
46
When heel cord advancement is done ? i. Equinus is reduced ii. Push off is greatly weakened iii. Tendoachillis is weakened. Of these statements
Answer
Question Cancelled
47
Lambrinudi's triple arthrodesis was originally described for which foot deformity
Answer
C. equinus
48
Which muscular dystrophy is autosomal dominant ?
Answer
C. Facioscapulohumeral
49
In Anderson and D'Alonzo classification highest rate of non-union is seen in
Answer
B. Type 2
50
Soft tissue calcification in the X-ray is seen in
Answer
A. Synovial sarcoma
51
Which of the following is false with respect to villonodular synovitis ?
Answer
D. Aspirated fluid is clear
52
_________ is an osteotomy done at the base of the neck of femur.
Answer
C. Kramer and Barmada
53
Coplanar test is a measure of
Answer
D. Sum of acetabular and femoral anteversion
54
Intercostobrachial nerve is the cutaneous branch of
Answer
C. T2
55
Cervical sympathetic ganglion associated with ciliospinal reflex is
Answer
A. Superior
56
The bone commonly involved in Caffey's disease
Answer
C. Mandible
57
In a case of left sided slipped capital femoral epiphysis in the frog leg lateral view the epiphyseal-diaphyseal angle on the right side is ten degree, then the minimum angle of the same on the left side beyond which the slip is not considered mild is
Answer
D. 40
58
While doing a replacement in a valgus knee, the distal femoral cut is better done in
Answer
C. 3 degree valgus
59
1) PCL release from femur 2) Removal of lateral osteophytes 3) Pie crusting of the ITB 4) Popliteus release 5) Posterolateral capsular release The correct sequential order of release for correcting valgus in a tkr is
Answer
D. 2 1 5 3 4
60
Motion similar to that in a cow's hip is obtained in Stulberg type
Answer
C. 4
61
For safely releasing the origin of peroneus longus from the fibular head, the blade should be directed
Answer
C. Upwards and anteriorly
62
For introducing a 4.5 mm non self tapping cortical screw the drill bit for the pilot hole should be
Answer
B. 3.2 mm
63
During operations for the proximal femur if the anteversion guide wire is placed along the upper half of the anterior surface of the femoral neck and then if you pass the definitive guidewire parallel to it, the resultant anteversion will
Answer
A. increase
64
Pellagrini-Steida disease affects
Answer
C. medial collateral ligament
65
Regarding the knee joint the popliteus muscle is functionally ____ and its tendon is ______
Answer
D. unlocking and intra articular
66
Which is the false statement ?
Answer
C. Step length is more than stride length
67
Holstein-Lewis lesion presents as a
Answer
D. post reduction lesion and is managed surgically
68
Oblique popliteal ligament of the knee is pierced by which artery ?
Answer
C. middle geniculate
69
Regarding Turrett exostosis what is true ?
Answer
B. traumatic
70
While doing a release of the carpal tunnel it is cut in line with the
Answer
A. ring finger
71
Positive Volkmann's sign is due to contracture of
Answer
C. flexor digitorum profundus
72
The gliding hole for a 3.5 mm cortical screw when used as a lag screw should be
Answer
C. 3.5 mm
73
During a normal gait the muscles that are active with the first, second and third rockers are respectively
Answer
C. Tibialis anterior, tibialis posterior with intrinsics and triceps surae
74
Sprouting granulations at the mouth of a sinus in a case of chronic osteomyelitis indicate
Answer
C. underlying sequestrum
75
In Ober transfer
Answer
D. tibialis posterior is passed over the shin of tibia
76
Regarding Felon which is wrong ?
Answer
B. if untreated it will always lead to sequestration of the entire phalanx
77
Vascular type of Ehler-Danlos syndrome is
Answer
B. Type 4
78
While doing dcp for a diaphyseal transverse fracture opening of the far cortex is prevented by
Answer
D. prebending the plate
79
In Ratliff classification in type 3
Answer
C. involvement is from the fracture line to the epiphyseal plate
80
In scapholunate dissociation
Answer
B. Scapholunate space is 4 mm
81
Rugger jersey spine is seen in
Answer
D. Both 1 and 3
82
In radial nerve palsy when palmaris longus is sutured to the rerouted extensor pollicis longus which movements of the thumb are regained
Answer
A. abduction and extension
83
In a child of eight years which of the following epiphyseal centres around the elbow will be absent ?
Answer
D. olecranon
84
If the second half of the POLO test is positive it means that
Answer
C. both statements are true
85
While doing a shuck test, if the hip is adequately tight how much of the femoral head is permitted to disengage from the liner
Answer
Question Cancelled
86
What is false regarding pseudoachondroplasia ?
Answer
C. epiphysis alone is affected
87
In which among the following dwarfs the spine alone is involved without limb involvement ?
Answer
C. Morquio's syndrome
88
In rickets, non union of osteotomy is sure to occur, if it is done before which stage of Lovett
Answer
D. 3
89
Which is not a feature of sabre tibia ?
Answer
A. sharp curve
90
In a case of brachial plexus injury, if you get all the modalities of triple response to histamine over an insensitive dermatome the lesion is then
Answer
A. Preganglionic
91
In the early stages of a case of syringomyelia, over the affected area the patient will be able to appreciate
Answer
C. light touch
92
In protrusion acetabuli the CE angle of Weiberg will be greater than
Answer
D. 40 degree
93
The normal measurements of volar tilt of radius, radial inclination and radial height are respectively
Answer
C. 11 degree, 23 degree and 11 mm
94
Applying Mirel's criteria, a peritrochanteric blastic lesion with moderate pain will need prophylactic internal fixation when the lesion involves
Answer
C. 1/3 − 2/3 diameter of the bone
95
The three fragment triplane fracture is a combination of Salter-Harris type
Answer
A. 2 and 3
96
Geographical skull is seen in
Answer
C. Eosinophilic granuloma
97
In a supracondylar fracture of the humerus anterior spike and crescent sign in the X-ray respectively represent
Answer
B. rotation and tilt
98
Harmon approach is valuable for exposure of which part of tibia ?
Answer
C. Middle two third
99
Osteoid osteoma does not affect
Answer
C. Skull
100
In a pelvis X-ray only the principal compressive trabeculae stand out prominently and the remaining trabeculae have been essentially absorbed, then the Singh's index is
Answer
C. Grade 2
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