| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Oto Rhino Laryngology Head and Neck (ENT) - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 055/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 567/2023 |
| Date of Test | 23 May 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
All except one is true for Leudet's sign:
Answer
B. Reflex spasm of levator veli palitini
2
Soldier's helmet with deafness is seen in
Answer
A. Paget's disease
3
Features of Melkersson syndrome are all except:
Answer
D. Bilateral facial nerve palsy
4
Poorly formed antihelix is seen in
Answer
A. Bat ear
5
All of the following are causes of delayed onset hearing loss except:
Answer
Question Cancelled
6
In normal adult V wave is BERA is generated from:
Answer
C. Lateral lemniscus
7
Eustachian tube is opened if pressure difference is more than:
Answer
A. 15 mm Hg
8
All are false about SISI test except:
Answer
A. 0-20% is seen in normal patients
9
The normal acceptable range of linear displacement in Urtenberger test is
Answer
B. Right 70 and left 50
10
A 5 month old baby presents with bilateral preauricular sinuses and a discharging pit at the anterior border of sternocleidomastoid. A diagnosis of branchio-oto-renal syndrome (BOR) is suspected. Which of the following statements regarding BOR syndrome is false?
Answer
C. It is an autosomal recessive inherited condition
11
Diagnostic criteria for Tolosa Hunt syndrome is all except
Answer
Question Cancelled
12
Oort's nerve connects
Answer
C. Cochlear nerve and inferior vestibular nerve
13
Gacek's surgery is done for
Answer
B. BPPV
14
Glomus tumour invading the vertical part of carotid canal. It is
Answer
C. Type C2
15
In monoaural displacusis, the lesion is in the
Answer
A. Cochlea
16
Spontaneous otoacoustic emissions:
Answer
A. Does not require external stimulus, not present in all normal ears
17
All are true about malignant otitis externa except:
Answer
B. Technetium scan is more useful in the prognostic evaluation of this entity
18
What is the most common form of barotrauma in recreational scuba divers?
Answer
A. Barotitis media
19
The principal site where aminoglycosides cause damage to produce hearing loss is:
Answer
A. Outer hair cells of basal turn of cochlea
20
Otitis externa hemorrhagica is caused by
Answer
C. Both (1) and (2)
21
You are performing external rhinoplasty of a 30 year old female for crooked nose along with excessive tip projection. Which of the following structures final assessment is easily done during surgery even without wound closure? (i) Supratip area (ii) Upper lateral cartilages (iii) Nasal Septum (iv) Bony vault of the dorsum
Answer
D. (ii), (iii), (iv)
22
Your junior informs about a patient in emergency having history of assault over nose one day before. He informs about one plain x-ray film lateral view showing suspicious area of nasal bone fracture. You immediately tell your junior to take the patient into operating room for fracture reduction. The mistakes committed in above scenario which may lead to compromised care for the patient are: (i) Not asking for high resolution ultrasound of nose before the operative procedure. (ii) Taking the patient into operating room immediately. (iii) Not asking about clinical examination findings.
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii)
23
You are performing septoplasty in a patient. After giving incision, you face problem in approaching deviated caudal end of the septum since the incision was given 1 cm behind the caudal septal end. You also land up tearing the delicate respiratory mucosa at the level of incision while trying to elevate the flap. Which incisions are better for the above clinical situation with regards to surgical access and reduced chances of flap tearing? (i) Killian's incision (ii) Hemitransfixation incision (iii) Full Transfixation incision
Answer
C. (ii), (iii)
24
You are performing preoperative assessment of a patient of right sided nasal obstruction. You obtain a rhinogram and analyze it. Graph shows compromised cross sectional area in the region of second dip on the right side. The most probable site of obstructive pathology is at the level of:
Answer
Question Cancelled
25
You are performing expanded endonasal approach for a case of extensive skull base fungal osteomyelitis. You have identified the vidian canal along with vidian nerve and artery. You are drilling and tracing vidian canal posteriorly. Which structure you are expected to expose if you continue drilling further in the same direction?
Answer
D. Genu at junction of petrous horizontal and ascending internal carotid artery
26
When you take deep and fast breath, one area of the nose presents with maximum resistance in a normal person. Resection of which structure will not cause a compromise in the function of that particular area?
Answer
D. Middle turbinate
27
You are performing FESS for chronic rhinosinusitis in a 40 year old male diabetic patient. You want to open Sphenoid Ostium. What should be the approximate position of your instrument to reach to the area of sphenoid ostium?
Answer
D. 30° to the nasal floor and 7 cms from the anterior nasal spine
28
You are treating spontaneous CSF Leak in a 35 year old obese female. You advise for preoperative work up of the patient. Which of the following statement are correct with regards to this work-up? (i) CT Cisternography is an invasive modality requiring intrathecal injection of contrast. (ii) MRU Cisternography is an invasive modality requiring intrathecal injection of contrast. (iii) Empty sella may be associated with this patient. (iv) Increased BMI may lead to Benign Intracranial Hypertension, which may be evaluated using Modified Dandy Criteria (v) β-2 transferrin and β-trace protein in nasal secretions may be used as markers for presence of CSF
Answer
B. (i), (iii), (iv), (v)
29
You are consulted by a 16 year old female patient having pituitary microadenoma with increased prolactin levels and no ophthalmic/neurological involvement either clinically or radiologically. What would be the best advice for her?
Answer
B. Referred to Endocrinologist for primary medical management by dopamine agonists.
30
Which of the following is a landmark to preserve Olfactory epithelium and avoid CSF leakage during Endoscopic Endonasal Transfrontal Approach?
Answer
A. Anterior attachment of middle turbinate to the skull base.
31
You have performed an endoscopic endonasal resection of nasal tumor extending into anterior cranial fossa with dural involvement. You have excised and repaired the involved dura with vascularized nasoseptal flap. A lumbar drain was also put. His postoperative recovery is uneventful. On postoperative day 3, after pack removal, despite being advised otherwise, the patient blows his nose heavily. After one hour, the patient becomes confused and obtunded with progressive neurological deterioration. The senior consultant advises following steps to be taken immediately. To advise urgent CT Head, to administer 100% oxygen and to close the lumber drain and further advises to keep the operating room ready, in case surgical intervention is needed. Which most probable diagnosis is the senior consultant is considering?
Answer
B. Pneumocephalus
32
A 45 year old male with uncontrolled diabetes presents with 5 days history of right facial swelling, right nasal obstruction, protrusion of right eye with decreased vision and orbital movements. Choose the best strategy for diagnostic work-up suspecting acute invasive fungal rhinosinusitis.
Answer
A. Immediate Nasal endoscopy with middle turbinate mucosal biopsy and crusts/secretions collections for KOH, followed by CT Scan PNS.
33
You are treating a 35 year old female case of chronic rhinosinusitis without nasal polyps (CRSsNP). Which is the most strongly recommended therapy for this condition, as per the current evidence?
Answer
D. High volume saline irrigations and topical intranasal corticosteroids
34
Which of the following pathology is poorly manageable via endoscopic endonasal transpterygoid approach?
Answer
C. Optic nerve sheath decompression
35
CT Scan of Paranasal Sinuses reveals enlarged vertical orbit, lateral position of the infraorbital neurovascular canal, elevated canine fossa, enlarged superior orbital fissure and enlarged pterygopalatine fissure. Which of the following diagnosis is described best by all these radiologic criteria?
Answer
C. Maxillary hypoplasia
36
Which of the following bones are affected in all the three classical Le Fort I, II and III fractures? (i) Nasal septum (ii) Pterygoids (iii) Zygoma (iv) Inferior orbital wall
Answer
A. (i), (ii)
37
You receive a 5 years old child with history of purulent right nasal discharge since 3 days with pain and swelling over right eyelid since 2 days. The visual acuity and orbital movements are within normal limits. Which of the following statements are true? (i) This is an unusual situation since younger children normally are more prone to intracranial complications rather than orbital complications of acute bacterial sinusitis. (ii) CT PNS may be advocated to assess the extent of pathology in sinuses and orbital involvement. (iii) Immediate orbital decompression should be advocated to reverse the orbital involvement. (iv) This can be classified as Chandler Group I.
Answer
B. (ii), (iv)
38
Which of the following are the features of a Nasoseptal flap being used for covering sphenoid defects? (i) Can cover large areas of the skull base defect in anterior cranial fossa only (ii) Excellent success rate (iii) Can be revised during revision surgery (iv) The pedicle cannot be dissected and extended laterally beyond the sphenopalatine foramen.
Answer
B. (ii), (iii)
39
You are preparing a patient for FESS. On reviewing preoperative CT Scan PNS Coronal view, you find a conical projection facing medially from the upper part of medial orbital wall. This projection is in the skull base area just posterior to frontal sinus recess area. The injury to the contents of this projection may cause following problem during the surgery: (Choose the best answer) (i) CSF Leak from posterior wall of frontal sinus (ii) Penumocephalous (iii) Orbital haematoma (iv) Intracranial haematoma
Answer
C. (iii), (iv)
40
A 30 year old affluent female with isolated single sinus disease presents to you for sinus surgery. You are counselling her for balloon dilatation sinusotomy as a latest technique. Which of the following sinuses is amenable to anterograde as well as retrograde approach with this technique?
Answer
B. Maxillary
41
Which among the following statements is true regarding adenoidectomy in children?
Answer
C. A partial adenoidectomy using direct vision technique can be safely performed in cases of submucous cleft palate.
42
All the following are radiological features of Juvenile Nasopharyngeal Angiofibroma in CT and MRI scans, except
Answer
C. Calcification within the tumour has been described.
43
Which among the following statements is/are true regarding Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma? (i) The lymphatic spread follows a predictable and olderly pattern. Skip metastasis is rare. (ii) Cervical lymph node extension below the level of cricoid cartilage is associated with the worst prognosis. (iii) Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma is notorious for a high risk of distant metastasis. (iv) Involvemnet of lymph nodes below the clavicle is considered as distant metastasis.
Answer
A. All are correct
44
The eighth edition of the AJCC has made the following changes in the TNM staging of Nasopharyngeal Carcinoma, except -
Answer
B. Adjacent muscle involvement including medial pterygoid, lateral pterygoid and prevertebral muscles are now designated as T3.
45
Choanal atresia can be seen in association with the following syndromes except -
Answer
Question Cancelled
46
Which among the following statements is/are true regarding the latest AJCC TNM staging for Thyroid Carcinoma? (i) Minor extrathyroidal extension is removed from the definition of T3 disease. (ii) T3a is a new category which refers to tumour > 4 cm in greatest dimension limited to thyroid gland. (iii) T4a is a new category which refers to tumour of any size with gross extrathyroidal extension invading only strap muscles. (iv) All anaplastic tumours will have the same definition for T category as the ones used for differentiated thyroid cancers.
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) correct
47
All the following are features of Medullary Carcinoma Thyroid, except
Answer
D. Tumors with abundant amyloid content have worse prognosis
48
Regarding Thyrogossal cyst the following statements is/are true - (i) Thyrogossal cysts are the most common upper neck midline lesions. (ii) About 75% are prehyoid. (iii) A modification of the Sistrunk technique is the current standard surgical procedure, without the need for excision of the tongue base epithelium. (iv) In case of recurrence following a Sistrunk technique, a central compartment neck dissection should be performed.
Answer
A. All are correct
49
The Cervical Sinus theory has been suggested to explain the origin of
Answer
B. Branchial cysts
50
Which among the following statements is false regarding salivary gland neoplasms?
Answer
D. Distant metastatic spread is most frequently to liver.
51
Which among the following statements regarding the Parotid duct of Stensen is true?
Answer
C. The facial nerve and its branches are always lateral to it.
52
Given below are a few statements about neck dissection. Which among the following statements is/are true? (i) A comprehensive neck dissection involves removal of levels 1 to 5. (ii) Elective neck dissection is any type of neck dissection performed on a clinically and radiologically negative neck. (iii) Super selective neck dissection includes compartmental removal of lymph nodes limited to one or two contiguous neck levels. (iv) Fixation to the overlying skin is a contraindication for neck dissection.
Answer
B. (i), (ii) and (iii) are true
53
A patient who underwent radical neck dissection developed a chylous leak. Which among the following statements is false?
Answer
Question Cancelled
54
Which among the following is an indication for emergency neck exploration in a case of cervical trauma?
Answer
A. Major hemoptysis
55
Given below are a few statements regarding penetrating neck injury. Which among them is/are false? (i) The commonly used classification for neck trauma is the Roon and Christensen's classification which divides the neck into four zones. (ii) All the zones contain major vascular and aerodigestive structures. (iii) In the classification by Monson, the transition between zones I and II is at the sternal notch. (iv) Wounds should not be probed as this may cause massive bleeding from an arterial injury.
Answer
D. Only (i) is false
56
All the following conditions in the oral cavity are considered likely premalignant except -
Answer
B. Oral hairy leukoplakia
57
Which among the following is a risk factor for malignant transformation in a leukoplakia of the oral cavity?
Answer
C. Location on the tongue
58
All the following are techniques of repair of congenital cleft palate except -
Answer
A. Millard technique
59
Which among the following statements regarding TNM staging carcinoma of the oral cavity is false?
Answer
D. Midline nodes are considered as contralateral nodes for staging purpose.
60
Dentigerous cyst arises around the crown of an unerupted tooth. The following statements regarding it are true, except -
Answer
C. They are more commonly multilocular but may also be unilocular.
61
Which of the following is not included in Stop-Bang questionnaire?
Answer
Question Cancelled
62
Which of the following holds true for Mild OSA?
Answer
B. ≥ 5 and < 15 apnoeas and hypopnoeas per hour
63
The posterior pillar of the tonsillar pillar is the most important tonsillar structure for Vellopharyngeal competence and is made of which of the following muscles?
Answer
B. Palatopharyngeus
64
Which of the following statements regarding Lingual thyroid is true? (i) Most common site of ectopic thyroid. (ii) It typically presents with hyperthyroidism. (iii) Surgical removal is the first line treatment. (iv) Lingual thyroid enlarge during pregnancy. Choose the correct option -
Answer
C. (i) and (iv)
65
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Answer
Question Cancelled
66
Which of the following is true regarding Parapharyngeal space?
Answer
Question Cancelled
67
Lymphocytes that are predominately present in lymphoepithelial carcinoma of nasopharynx?
Answer
D. Presence of CD 8+
68
Which of the following is not a subtype of epithelial malignancy in the nasopharynx according to the World Health Organizatino (WHO) classification?
Answer
B. Basaloid cell carcinoma
69
True regarding presbyphagia
Answer
A. It is a normal age related changes in swallowing in healthy adults
70
Continuous positive airway pressure (CPAP) is effective for obstructive sleep apnea (OSA) because it:
Answer
D. Prevents pharyngeal collapse during expiration
71
Which of the following is true regarding the diagnosis of laryngopharyngeal reflux?
Answer
A. A 24-hour dual-probe pH monitoring
72
According to the eighth edition of the American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) staging manual, a transglottic tumor involving the right true vocal fold with impaired vocal fold motion and invasion, limited to the paraglottic space is calssified as
Answer
C. T3
73
Which one of the following statements about transoral laser microresection (TLM) is true?
Answer
B. TLM is less commonly used for T1 cancers that involve the AC and for T2 cancers.
74
According to European Laryngological Society classificatino of transoral resections for glottic carcinomas, which of the following is correct?
Answer
A. Subligamental cordectomy - Type II
75
What is the primary objective of radiation therapy in combination with systemic therapy for laryngeal cancer?
Answer
B. To improve laryngeal preservation rates
76
Which chemotherapy regimen is commonly used in concurrent chemoradiotherapy (CRT) for laryngeal cancer?
Answer
B. Cisplatin on day 1, 22 and 43
77
What is the primary indication for the technique of tracheoesophageal puncture (TEP) with prosthetic valve and voice restoration in present-day practice?
Answer
B. Patients undergoing initial laryngectomy
78
Which of the following is involved in Vernet's Syndrome?
Answer
A. 9, 10, 11
79
Which of the following statements regarding videofluoroscopy is true?
Answer
D. It helps identify 'silent' aspiration.
80
What is the classic presentation of an infant with lower tracheal obstruction?
Answer
B. Expiratory stridor
81
The vascular supply of Bakamjian flap arises from:
Answer
C. Internal mammary artery
82
Hairy leukoplakia which is the true statement?
Answer
A. Seen on the lateral border of tongue
83
Which is false regarding Nd-Yag laser?
Answer
A. Has gas as its lasing medium
84
CHART regime is an example of:
Answer
C. Accelerated fractionation
85
The first sign of tuberculosis of larynx is
Answer
D. Impaired adduction of vocal cord
86
Regarding narrow band imaging:
Answer
C. Blue and green lights selected
87
Which among he following is a DNA topoisomerase I inhibitor:
Answer
A. Irinotecan
88
Which of the following statement is false:
Answer
C. Mature cells are considerably more sensitive to radiation than immature cells.
89
Oral manifestations of HIV include all except:
Answer
D. Wickham Striae
90
Boyce's position is for:
Answer
B. Direct laryngoscopy
91
A 45 year old male patient underwent oesophagoscopy. In the post operative period he developed fever and pain radiating to back and shoulders. Most likely diagnosis is:
Answer
B. Perforation oesophagus
92
Double contour in X-ray is associated with:
Answer
B. Ingested button battery
93
The location of the foreign body within the airway in decreasing order of frequency:
Answer
C. Right bronchus, trachea, larynx, lung
94
Apple jelly nodules are seen in:
Answer
C. Lupus vulgaris
95
Which statement regarding COVID 19 associated rhino-orbital cerebral mucormycosis is incorrect?
Answer
B. Systemic antifungals alone is the treatment of choice
96
Which statement is false about Caldwell-Luc surgery?
Answer
B. Middle meatal antrostomy is done
97
Secondary haemorrhage after tonsillectomy is due to:
Answer
C. Infection
98
Lynch Howarth surgery is done for
Answer
D. Sinonasal tumours
99
The maximum score in Middle ear risk index 2001 (MERI) is for:
Answer
C. Ossicular status
100
The techniques used for controlling bleeding from bone during mastoidectomy are all except:
Answer
B. Cutting drill over the bleeding area
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