| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Pathology - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 027/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 334/2023 |
| Date of Test | 20 March 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
All of the following are clearing agents except
Answer
A. 10% formalin
2
Toning in reticulin stain is done using
Answer
C. Gold chloride
3
PAS stain is used to demonstrate all except
Answer
Question Cancelled
4
Fluid used for museum mounting is
Answer
B. Kaiserling's ļ¬uid
5
Temperature of cryostat is
Answer
Question Cancelled
6
Number of sections cut by mm block at
Answer
C. 750
7
Following are types of necrosis
Answer
D. All of above
8
All are arachidonic acid metabolites except
Answer
D. Serotonin
9
All are causes of oedema except
Answer
D. Arteriolar obstruction
10
All are components of Virchow's triad except
Answer
D. Activation of ļ¬brinolyte pathway
11
Type III hypersensitivity is due to
Answer
A. antigen antibody complexes
12
Following are components of CREST syndrome
Answer
D. All of the above
13
All of the following are oncogenes except
Answer
D. gene
14
All of the following are autosomal recessive syndromes of defective DNA repair except
Answer
D. Neuroļ¬bromatosis lac Z
15
All of the following are chemical carcinogens except
Answer
Question Cancelled
16
Special stain for tubercle bacilli is
Answer
Question Cancelled
17
Grenz zone is seen in which leprosy
Answer
A. Lepromatous
18
Massive necrosis with superadded putrefaction is the deļ¬nition of
Answer
A. Gangrene
19
All are substances secreted in paraneoplastic syndrome except
Answer
Question Cancelled
20
All are DNA oncogenic viruses except
Answer
Question Cancelled
21
Following are criteria for diagnosis of cystic ļ¬brosis
Answer
D. All of the above
22
Following are lysosomal storage disorders
Answer
D. All of above
23
Guardian of the genome is
Answer
A. p53
24
All are fats of thrombus except
Answer
Question Cancelled
25
All are presentations of Wiskott Aldrich syndrome except
Answer
C. Embolism
26
All are three viral enzymes found in the viral cone of HIV virus except
Answer
C. lipase
27
Which of the following tumour is CA IX positive
Answer
B. Clear cell papillary renal cell carcinoma
28
Following are the examples of syndromes associated with Wilm's tumour except
Answer
A. Alport syndrome
29
Hobnail appearance of glands is speciļ¬c feature of
Answer
A. Clear cell carcinoma endometrium
30
Which of the following is the stage of tumour for Neuroblastoma according to international staging system if the tumour is localized, grossly resected imcompletely, representative ipsilateral non adherant lymph nodes negative for tumour microscopically?
Answer
B. Stage 2A
31
The RS cells in classic Hodgkin's Lymphoma are positive for
Answer
C. CD15, CD30, PAX5
32
All the following are the causes of left sided cardiac failure except
Answer
D. Corpulmonale
33
All the following are the conditions associated with Asbestos exposure except
Answer
A. Bronchial asthma
34
Hairy Leukoplakia is caused by
Answer
A. EBV
35
Which of the following condition is characteristically associated with intra epithelial lymphocytosis?
Answer
B. Celiac disease
36
The following condition is associated with maplike pattern of strong cytoplasmic glutamine synthetase enzyme staining of cells
Answer
C. Focal nodular hyperplasia liver
37
Crystalloids of Reinke is associated with
Answer
B. Leydig cell tumour
38
RAS mutation is commonly associated with the following neoplasm
Answer
B. Follicular carcinoma thyroid
39
Civatte bodies are characteristically seen in the following condition
Answer
D. Lichen planus
40
The cytogenetic abnormality t(x:17) (p11.2; q2.5) is speciļ¬cally associated with the following tumour
Answer
A. Alveolar soft part sarcoma
41
Lewy body is diagnostic hall mark of
Answer
D. Parkinson disease
42
The retinal vasculopathy of diabetes mellitus can associated with all the following except
Answer
C. Cytoid bodies
43
Which of the following condition is closely associated with cardiac Rhabdomyoma?
Answer
D. Tuberous sclerosis
44
The speciļ¬c immuno histo chemical marker of chordoma is
Answer
B. Brachyury
45
The gene BRCA-1 responsible for familial breast cancer is located on
Answer
C. Chromosome 17
46
All the following immuno histochemical markers are positive for Embryonal carcinoma except
Answer
A. C-KIT
47
The collection of blood in capillaries of dependent parts of the body after death is termed as
Answer
C. Livor mortis
48
Rigor mortis ļ¬rst appears in
Answer
D. Orbicularis oculi
49
Grade 2 narrowing of lumen of coronary artery is characterised by narrowing
Answer
C. upto 50%
50
The amount of preservative, sodium ļ¬uoride used for collection of blood during post mortem is
Answer
C. 300 mg/30 ml blood
51
The condition in which the kidneys are symmetrically contracted and diļ¬usely granular cortical surface is
Answer
C. Chronic glomerulo nephritis
52
Protection against Plasmodium vivax is seen in the following
Answer
D. South east asian ovalocytosis
53
The proliferation and survival of myeloma cells is dependent on
Answer
A. IL 6
54
Inheritance pattern of Paroxysmal Nocturnal Hemoglobinuria is
Answer
D. None of the above
55
Features of Anemia of chronic diseases include
Answer
D. All of the above
56
The following are included in the diļ¬erential count in a case of Acute Myeloid Leukemia
Answer
D. Myeloblast, monoblast, promonocyte and magakaryoblast
57
42/F, K/C/O Rheumatoid Arthritis developed Hypochromic Microcytic Anemia and was given iron therapy. However, she did not improve and her peripheral blood picture showed hypochromic microcytic anemia. Which of the following statements regarding the persistence of blood picture is correct? (i) Presence of increased levels of IL6 (ii) Reduction in erythropoietin levels (iii) Iron sequestration
Answer
D. All of the above
58
Which of the following statements is correct regarding HIV associated thrombocytopenia? (i) It is due to the presence of HIV receptors CD 4 and CXCR 4 on megakaryocytes. (ii) There is B cell hyperplasia and increased auto antibody production. (iii) There is immune complex deposition on platelet membrane
Answer
D. All of the above
59
EBV associated T cell Lymphoma include all except
Answer
B. Enteropathy associated T cell Lymphoma
60
Langerhans cell histiocytosis cells express the following
Answer
D. All of the above
61
The following is true about spherocytes They are seen in (i) Hereditary spherocytosis (ii) Delayed transfusion reaction (iii) ABO hemolytic disease of new born (iv) Auto immune hemolytic anemia (v) Bacterial toxins
Answer
D. All of the above
62
Diļ¬erent crises seen in Sickle cell anemia are
Answer
Question Cancelled
63
Diagnostic criteria of Essential Thrombocytosis include all except
Answer
B. BCR-ABL Translocation
64
In a 7 part Automated Hematology Analyzer, in addition to Neutrophils, Lymphocytes, Eosinophil, Basophil and Monocyte, the diļ¬erential counts include
Answer
C. Large immature cells (including blasts and immature granulocytes) and atypical lymphocytes (including small blasts)
65
Quality control is deļ¬ned as
Answer
C. Measures that must be included during each assay run to verify that the test is working properly
66
Naphthol AS-D chloroacetate esterase shows strong staining of Auer rods in
Answer
B. t(8:21)
67
Cellular changes due to excess EDTA include all except
Answer
B. RBC and WBC swelling and degeneration
68
Advantages of q RT-PCR in monitoring Minimal Residual Disease are
Answer
D. All of the above
69
Antiphospholipid Protein Antibodies (APA) are associated with the presence of Lupus Anticoagulant (LA), anti Cardiolipin Antibody (a CL) and antibodies to group I. They show the following except
Answer
B. Bleeding tendencies
70
Causes of ADAMTS13 deļ¬ciency include
Answer
D. All of the above
71
All are true about Protein Z except
Answer
B. Reduced levels are seen in Nephrotic syndrome
72
All are true about Cell Salvage
Answer
D. All of the above
73
Hemovigilance includes
Answer
D. All of the above
74
Carbohydrate blood groups include all except
Answer
C. Rh blood group system
75
Examples of Therapeutic Apheresis include
Answer
D. All of the above
76
Basic elements of Quality Management System in Transfusion Medicine include,
Answer
D. All of the above
77
Types of probes which can be used for performing FISH include all except
Answer
B. Taqman probes
78
Which of the following is false regarding C-ANCA?
Answer
B. Positivity is indicated by perinuclear ļ¬uorescence in alcohol ļ¬xed neutrophils
79
Which of the following is true regarding CISH?
Answer
D. Concurrent analysis of morphologic features of tumor cells and gene copy number can be studied
80
RT-PCR
Answer
B. Used to amplify RNA targets
81
Reactive mesothelial cells in eļ¬usions are
Answer
D. Positive for CK and Calretinin and negative for Ber EP4
82
Cytological stain used to detect Barr body include all except
Answer
C. Nile Blue Sulphate
83
Which of the following is true regarding Diļ¬-Quik stain?
Answer
B. Direct restaining with Papanicolaou stain is possible without prior destaining
84
Carnoy's ļ¬xative contain all except
Answer
B. Polyethylene glycol
85
Following are cytological features of pancreatic neuroendocrine tumors except
Answer
D. Background cell debris and necrotic material
86
Cytological features of chondroblastoma include all except
Answer
A. Mononuclear cells with admixed osteoclast like giant cells having similar nuclear morphology
87
The presence of dispersed cells with scant cytoplasm and perinuclear deposits of cytokeratin positive IF buttons are characteristic of
Answer
C. Merkel cell carcinoma
88
IHC positivity for CK7&CK20 in lymph node aspirate smears can be used to diagnose metastasis from
Answer
B. Urothelial carcinoma
89
Soderstrom bodies are best identiļ¬ed in air dried MGG stained smears of
Answer
C. Reactive hyperplasia lymph node
90
Features of ASCUS include all except
Answer
A. Densely keratinized squamous cells with pyknotic nuclei
91
"Minimally invasive" is the designation for thyroid neoplasms demonstrating
Answer
B. Encapsulated follicular pattern with complete transcapsular penetration by neoplastic cells without vascular invasion
92
Feature of reactive gastropathy include all except
Answer
D. Dense inļ¬ammatory inļ¬ltrate in lamina propria
93
All of the following are true regarding mesonephric adenocarcinoma of the female genital tract except
Answer
B. Histologically characterized by high grade nuclear atypia and areas of mucinous, squamous and ciliated diļ¬erentiation
94
The IHC marker positive in epithelioid sarcoma
Answer
C. Cytokeratin AE1/AE3
95
The characteristic genetic fusion in alveolar soft part sarcoma
Answer
B. ASPSCR1-TFE3
96
Which of the following is true regarding latest WHO classiļ¬cation of gliomas?
Answer
Question Cancelled
97
SMARC A4 deļ¬cient neoplasms are characterized by all except
Answer
B. Predominance of tumors with basaloid morphology
98
Most common histologic type of lymphoma associated with breast implants
Answer
A. ALCL
99
Monomorphic Epitheliotropic Intestinal T cell lymphoma (MEITL)
Answer
C. Is CD56 positive
100
Which of the following is false regarding papillary RCC?
Answer
D. Presence of psammoma bodies, foamy macrophages and hemosiderin laden macrophages constitute the speciļ¬c diagnostic microscopic feature
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.