| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Periodontics - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 054/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 351/2023 |
| Date of Test | 23 May 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Nerve carrying taste sensations from circumvallate papillae of tongue is
Answer
C. Glossopharyngeal Nerve
2
Which of the following is true about the articular disc of temperomandibular joint ?
Answer
B. The disc is predominantly composed of dense fibrous connective tissue
3
Which of the following statement is/are correct about saliva ? i) Hypotonicity relative to plasma ii) Modification by the salivary ductal cells involves reabsorption iii) Salivary secretion is abolished by vagotomy
Answer
Question Cancelled
4
Which of the following statements is/are correct about neospinothalamic pain pathway ? i) Neurotransmitter secreted by afferent fibres is glutamate. ii) Responsible for the discriminative aspect of pain. iii) Includes synapses in brainstem reticular formation and centrolateral thalamic nucleus.
Answer
Question Cancelled
5
Which is not true regarding structure of collagen ?
Answer
D. Oxidative deamination of cysyl residues
6
Signs of Vitamin C deficiency includes all except
Answer
B. Impaired blood clotting
7
The type of embolism in which an embolus passes through an atrial or ventricular defect and enters the systemic circulation
Answer
A. Paradoxical embolism
8
Functional inactivation of lymphocytes induced by encounter with antigen under certain conditions is called
Answer
B. Anergy
9
All are true about Hepatitis B Virus (HBV) except
Answer
C. HBV is the only DNA virus among hepatitis viruses
10
All are true about Herpes simplex virus type 1 (HSV-1) except
Answer
D. Tzanck smear can differentiate between HSV-1 and HSV-2
11
An anticoagulant taken after the valve replacement surgery undergoes nonlinear elimination. It has high plasma protein binding and even 1% displacement causes doubling of its free drug concentration. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ? i) This drug can be given through oral and parenteral route. ii) It causes pharmacokinetic and pharmacodynamic interaction with aspirin. iii) Phytonadione is an antidote for this drug overdose. iv) Monitoring of Activated Partial Thromboplastin Time is essential with this drug.
Answer
C. ii and iii are correct
12
A patient on phenytoin presents to you with gum hypertrophy, hirsuitism, and lymphadenopathy. He was also having diplopia, nystagmus and ataxia. His peripheral smear is suggestive of megaloblastic anemia. You examine the patient and decide to report the adverse drug reaction. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ? i) Gum hypertrophy is a common adverse reaction and need not be reported. ii) Phenytoin causes megaloblastic anemia due to interference with Vitamin B12 absorption. iii) Lymphadenopathy is not related to phenytoin adverse effect. iv) Diplopia, nystagmus and ataxia are symptoms of phenytoin overdose toxicity.
Answer
D. Only iv is correct
13
For inferior alveolar nerve block you injected this local anaesthetic. Which of the following statement(s) is/are true ? i) EMLA is eutectic mixture of local anesthetics and is highly effective on inflamed tissues like infected tooth. ii) Addition of Lignocaine with Adrenaline may increase tissue edema and necrosis. iii) Lignocaine combined with Prilocaine can be used on the intact skin for split skin graft harvesting. iv) Lignocaine is used for the treatment of atrial arrhythmias.
Answer
C. ii and iii are correct
14
A 35-year-old diabetic is on Metformin. She is asthmatic and also recently detected to have polycystic ovarian disease. The current visit to your OPD shows that she has a blood pressure of 150/96 mm Hg. The best choice of antihypertensive would be
Answer
B. Enalapril
15
Assertion (A) : Ivabradine is an antianginal, also used for sinus bradycardia as well as stable Grade II to IV heart failure. Reason (R) : Ivabradine block cardiac pacemaker f (funny) channels that open during early part of slow diastolic depolarization.
Answer
D. A is false but R is true
16
The drug which decreases the bioavailability of cyclosporine by acting on P glycoprotein is
Answer
A. Rifampicin
17
Eighteen months old Aarav has step ladder pattern of fever and tested seropositive for typhoid. As his doctor you decide to use the fastest acting and most reliable drug for enteric fever which is
Answer
B. Ceftriaxone
18
Assertion (A) : Dobutamine is used as an inotropic agent in pumpfailure in Myocardial Infarction. Reason (R) : Dobutamine is a derivative of dopamine which acts on D1 receptor.
Answer
C. A is true but R is false
19
Which of the following is a disclosing agent ?
Answer
A. Fluorescein
20
Which of the following statement is true ?
Answer
D. Fluoride ions inhibit acid forming enzyme of plaque bacteria providing carioprotection
21
Which of the statement is true for Mucogingival junction ? i) Mucogingival junction moves coronally with age. ii) Mucogingival junction moves apically with age. iii) Mucogingival junction remains stationary throughout adult life. iv) None of the above
Answer
C. Only (iii)
22
Which of the statement is true for sulcular epithelium is true ? i) It expresses cytokeratin K1 and K2. ii) It expresses K4, K13. iii) It expresses K10 and K12. iv) It expresses K19.
Answer
C. Only (ii) and (iv)
23
Melanocytes lineage in the gingiva are derived from i) Ectoderm. ii) Neural crest. iii) Both ectoderm and neural crest. iv) Endoderm.
Answer
B. Only (ii)
24
Sensation perceived by Periodontal ligament i) Touch, pain, pressure. ii) Touch, temperature, pain. iii) Pressure, pain, temperature. iv) Temperature, pain, touch.
Answer
A. Only (i)
25
In saliva, salivary buffering system is i) Lactoperoxidase-thiocynate system ii) Bicarbonate-carbonate system iii) Both (i) and (ii) iv) None of the above
Answer
B. Only (ii)
26
Which is an anti-inflammatory cytokine among the four choices ? i) Interleukin 1 alfa ii) Interleukin 1 beta iii) Interleukin 1 receptor antagonist iv) None of the above
Answer
C. Only (iii)
27
Among the 4 options, which is not a pattern recognition receptor ? i) RIG receptor ii) NOD-LIKE receptor iii) TOLL like receptor iv) RAGE
Answer
D. Only (iv)
28
Interpain A, A cysteine proteinase is expressed by which periodontal microorganism i) Aggregatibacter actinomycetemcomitans ii) Porphyromonas gingivalis iii) Fusobacterium nucleatum iv) Prevotella intermedia
Answer
D. Only (iv)
29
Which statement is true for gingival bleeding in chronic smokers with periodontitis ? i) Gingival bleeding is increased two fold in smokers compared to non-smokers ii) Gingival bleeding is reduced compared to non-smokers iii) Gingival bleeding remains same between smokers and non-smokers iv) Gingival bleeding is increased 2.8 fold in smokers compared to non-smokers
Answer
B. Only (ii)
30
Which crystal appear early in calculus formation ? i) Octa calcium phosphate ii) Magnesium whitlockite iii) Brushite iv) Hydroxyapatite
Answer
A. Only (i)
31
Leucocyte adhesion deficiency 1 is associated with deficiency in expression of i) Selectin ligand ii) CD 18 iii) CD 11 iv) Rap-1 activation
Answer
B. Only (ii)
32
Drugs causing oral pigmentation i) Zidovudine ii) Minocycline iii) Antimalarials iv) All of the above
Answer
D. Only (iv)
33
Complications of diabetes mellitus include i) Macro vascular disease ii) Altered wound healing iii) Periodontal disease iv) All of the above
Answer
D. Only (iv)
34
TLR-9 recognizes which of the following MAMPs ligand ? i) Lipoproteins ii) RNA iii) LPS iv) CpG DNA
Answer
D. Only (iv)
35
Varenicline is i) Tetracycline group of drugs used as antimicrobial agent ii) Used in smoking cessation, used as nicotine receptor partial agonist iii) HAART therapy iv) Calcium channel blocker
Answer
B. Only (ii)
36
Constant flora associated with Necrotizing gingivitis includes i) Porphyromonas gingivalis, Treponema denticola, Tanerella forsythia ii) Treponema species, Selenomonas spp, Fusobacterium spp, Prevotella Intermedia iii) Prevotella inermedia, Treponema denticola, Tanerella forsythus iv) Fuso-spirochetes
Answer
B. Only (ii)
37
Antimicrobial peptides expressed by junctional epithelium i) Beta defensin-1 ii) Beta defensin-2 iii) Alfa defensin iv) LI-37
Answer
C. iii and iv
38
Lipid mediators known to modulate the resolution of inflammation i) Resolvins ii) Protectins iii) Lipoxins iv) Maresins
Answer
D. All of the above
39
MMP-8 is secreted by i) Fibroblast ii) Neutrophil iii) Endothelial cell iv) Junctional epithelium
Answer
B. Only (ii)
40
Papillon-lefevre syndrome results from mutation in i) Cathepsin A gene ii) Cathepsin B gene iii) Cathepsin C gene iv) Cathepsin D gene
Answer
C. Only (iii)
41
The clinical finding observed in Code 2 in the Basic Periodontal Examination (BPE) is
Answer
C. Pocket depth < 3.5 mm with calculus or presence of another plaque retentive factor
42
A pregnant lady reports with isolated gingival enlargement which is erythematous and presence of pus drainage. The most probable diagnosis is
Answer
B. Angiogranuloma
43
Which of the following term denotes the occlusion which is used to counterbalance structural inter-relationship related to traumatic occlusion ?
Answer
A. Therapeutic occlusion
44
In Horning and Cohn staging of acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis, the clinical finding seen in Stage-4 is
Answer
B. Necrosis extending to attached gingiva
45
Which of the following feature precedes early stage of gingivitis ?
Answer
D. Perivascular collagen loss
46
Role of hyperfunction of masticatory muscle in eliciting traumatic occlusion as a cause of periodontitis is termed as
Answer
C. Karolyi effect
47
A child reports with advanced periodontal destruction with concurrent skin lesions consisting of hyperkeratosis palmoplantaris. The most probable diagnosis will be, periodontitis associated with
Answer
B. Papillon-Lefevre syndrome
48
Tooth interference which occur on non-functioning mandible side is termed as
Answer
A. Balancing side interface
49
Systemic regulatory influence on alveolar bone destruction is termed as
Answer
D. Bone factor
50
According to 2017 World Workshop on the Classification of Periodontal and Peri-implant Diseases and conditions, a patient who presents with interdental clinical attachment loss of > 5 mm, probing depth of > 6 mm and tooth loss due to periodontitis of < 4 teeth can be assigned to which of the following stage ?
Answer
C. Stage III
51
The anti-calculus agent in dentrifice, which can be used in older adults is
Answer
B. Pyrophosphate
52
The antibiotic which has increased effectiveness against infectious agent in acute necrotizing ulcerative gingivitis is
Answer
D. Metronidazole
53
For a patient of sixty years, who is presenting with progressing gingival recession and root sensitivity, the recommended tooth brushing technique is
Answer
A. Modified Stillman
54
Presence of which of the following clinical feature is an indication of antibiotic treatment in patients with acute forms of periodontal abscess ?
Answer
B. Diffuse cellulitis
55
Microbiologically Modulated Periodontal Therapy (MMPT) for the treatment of aggressive forms of periodontal disease refers to which of the following mode of approach ?
Answer
C. Keyes technique
56
Which one of the following antibiotic should be avoided for a breastfeeding female patient ?
Answer
D. Ciprofloxacin
57
Which of the following statement is false regarding current periodontal disease model for geriatric patient ?
Answer
A. Severe periodontal disease is a part of normal aging and a major cause for tooth loss
58
Which of the following combination of antibiotics has shown to be more effective systemic adjunctive regimen in treatment of aggressive periodontitis ?
Answer
B. Metronidazole + Amoxicillin
59
Patients with hypothyroidism require careful administration of sedatives or narcotics due to
Answer
C. Profound sedation
60
Alendronate can be used in which of the following situation ?
Answer
D. Periodontitis in older adults
61
Preferred imaging technique to depict periodontal bone levels in the posterior dentition is
Answer
D. Bitewing
62
Risk marker/predictor of periodontal disease is
Answer
A. BOP
63
Which of the following periodontal procedures is indicated for the reduction of deep periodontal pockets ?
Answer
C. Guided tissue regeneration
64
What are the primary sources of Volatile Sulfur Compounds (VSCs) that contribute to breath malodor ?
Answer
B. Porphyromonas gingivalis and Tannerella forsythia
65
What psychological interventions are recommended for managing bruxism, particularly in cases associated with stress or anxiety disorders ?
Answer
A. Cognitive-Behavioral Therapy (CBT)
66
Why should magnification loupes not be worn when practicing and perfecting certain fundamental skills of periodontal instrumentation ?
Answer
A. They limit the field of vision, making self-evaluation of fundamental skills difficult
67
Which of the following descriptions best matches the characteristics of a "micro-miniature working-end curette" ?
Answer
C. Lower shank is 3 mm longer than that of a standard Gracey curette, half the length of a standard Gracey curette, and 20% thinner than a standard Gracey curette
68
Which of the following statements regarding the application of a glycine powder air polishing is not correct ?
Answer
A. Patients generally find glycine-based air polishing uncomfortable
69
Which of the following materials is one of the oldest bone graft materials, known for its biocompatibility and ability to enhance angiogenesis ?
Answer
B. Calcium sulfate
70
What is the term used to describe the condition associated with rapid immune recovery and worsening of pre existing subclinical or minimally symptomatic infections with HAART ?
Answer
B. Immune reconstitution inflammatory syndrome (IRIS)
71
What is the significance of tooth mobility assessment during Phase I periodontal therapy ?
Answer
C. Reflects the degree of bone loss and attachment loss
72
What is the primary benefit of subgingival irrigation for periodontal patients with residual pockets and complex dental architecture ?
Answer
C. Subgingival irrigation with specialized tips or blunt syringes effectively maintains residual pockets and furcation areas, aiding in plaque removal
73
In periodontics, which of the following statements best describes serial and combination antibiotic therapy ?
Answer
A. Serial antibiotic therapy involves the sequential administration of different antibiotics over time, while combination therapy refers to the simultaneous use of multiple antibiotics to target a broad spectrum of bacteria
74
Which phase of clinical trials involves giving the drug or treatment to large groups of people to confirm its effectiveness, monitor side effects, compare it with commonly used treatments and collect information for safe usage ?
Answer
C. Phase III
75
Which of the following is not an element of informed consent as described ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
76
Which of the following is not a potential Host Modulation Therapy (HMT) for periodontitis mentioned in the provided text ?
Answer
B. Bisphosphonates
77
What is one proposed mechanism by which tetracyclines could potentially reduce the incidence of acute myocardial infarction, as suggested by Golub and colleagues ?
Answer
C. Stabilization of the collagen cap on arterial plaques
78
Which of the following statements is not true regarding the benefits of orthodontic therapy for adult patients with underlying periodontal defects ?
Answer
D. Orthodontic therapy is generally not recommended for adult patients with missing teeth, as it may exacerbate periodontal defects
79
Which surgical method aims to accelerate bone turnover and tooth movement through cortical injury ?
Answer
A. Micro-osteoperforation
80
What precaution should be taken regarding the administration of thrombin during surgery ?
Answer
B. It should only be used in dry fields
81
Which dressing incorporates antibiotics to improve healing and patient comfort ?
Answer
C. Coe-Pak
82
What is the primary advantage of using tissue engineering in periodontal plastic surgery ?
Answer
A. Reduced need for donor tissue from the palatal site
83
What was the primary outcome of the pilot study comparing a tissue- engineered bilayered cell therapy to free gingival grafting ?
Answer
B. Increase in the width of keratinized gingiva without donor site surgery
84
How does the PRF-Block differ from traditional methods of bone regeneration ?
Answer
B. It forms a strong bone substitute block within minutes
85
Which of the following is not a characteristics of polypropylene or polydioxanone sutures ?
Answer
C. Difficulty in knot tying
86
Surgical crown lengthening is indicated in all of the following except
Answer
B. Deep caries or fracture that require excessive bone removal on contiguous tooth
87
Which among the following is considered as the three critical areas to be effectively managed to produce a favourable biologic response to provisional restorations ?
Answer
A. Marginal fit, Crown contour, Surface finish of interim restoration
88
Pre-prosthetic periodontal surgery for preparation of periodontium for restorative dentistry includes all of the following except
Answer
A. Extraction of hopeless teeth
89
Papillary height in the "aesthetic zone" is established by
Answer
B. Level of bone, biological width, form of gingival embrasure
90
The long-term preservation of the dentition after periodontal therapy is closely associated with
Answer
C. Frequency and quality of recall maintenance
91
The most important implant design factor relative to prosthetic success of an implant is
Answer
D. Implant abutment connection design
92
Before placing an implant, large horizontal alveolar deficiencies can be best managed by
Answer
A. Monocortical block bone graft
93
The most effective and efficient way to access the maxillary sinus for bone augmentation to elevate the sinus floor before implant placement
Answer
C. Lateral window technique
94
Malpositioning of dental implants can results from
Answer
D. All of the above
95
Treatment of peri-implant mucositis include all of the following except
Answer
C. Full thickness flap elevation followed by degranulation
96
Factors that influence implant outcome include : i) Amount of available bone ii) Design of implant iii) Placement and loading protocols
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii)
97
Standard diagnostic imaging modalities used for diagnosis and treatment planning of implant patients include all of the following except
Answer
D. Computer tomography
98
The most important factor that has to be considered while evaluating the load bearing capacity of implant retained prosthesis is
Answer
A. Bone appositional index
99
Type of implant used in extremely resorbed edentulous mandible with alveolar ridge height less than 10 mm
Answer
B. Transmandibular implants
100
The recommended speed for bone tapping and implant insertion is
Answer
A. 20 - 40 rpm
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet — start the discussion.