| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Physical Medicine and Rehabilitation - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 065/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 314/2024 |
| Date of Test | 26 June 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
All of the following are true statements about Denosumab except
Answer
C. Increases bone mass by its eļ¬ect on Osteoblast
2
Which of the following is the origin of the long head of Biceps Brachii
Answer
B. Superior glenoid tubercle of scapula
3
The ļ¬ber types of Majority of muscle ļ¬bers in Soleus muscle are
Answer
A. Type I
4
Which receptor helps release calcium into the cytosol resulting in muscle contraction
Answer
B. Ryanodine Receptor
5
Which of the following is false about Restrictive Lung disease
Answer
C. FEV1/FVC is reduced
6
Baclofen is a
Answer
A. Selective agonist for GABA B receptor
7
The following are true regarding Hypokalemic Periodic Paralysis except
Answer
C. Most common cause is mutation in skeletal muscle sodium channel
8
Which of the following is a speciļ¬c test for Subscapularis muscle
Answer
D. Gerber's test
9
Causes of Vit B6 deļ¬ciency is
Answer
D. All of the above
10
The Rotator Interval Capsule is formed by all except
Answer
D. Inferior Glenohumeral Ligament
11
Which structure appears hypoechoic and compressible on musculoskeletal ultrasound?
Answer
D. Vein
12
Which of the following best describes cadence in gait?
Answer
B. Steps per minute
13
Kinetics in gait analysis requires the use of
Answer
A. Force platform
14
In IFT two medium frequency currents intersect to create a beat frequency usually in what range?
Answer
B. 50-150 Hz
15
Which component of gait is responsible for energy conservation?
Answer
C. Pelvic rotation and vertical displacement control
16
Which physical agent uses high frequency electromagnetic waves for deep heating?
Answer
B. SWD
17
During normal gait, the center of gravity moves in whcih pattern?
Answer
C. Vertical sinusoidal
18
The vertical ground reaction force during gait shows
Answer
C. A double peak [M shaped] pattern
19
In MSK ultrasound the normal appearance of tendon is longitudinal view is
Answer
B. Hyperechoiec and ļ¬brillar
20
In EMG ļ¬brillation potentials are most commonly seen in
Answer
C. Denervated muscle
21
Which is the usual latency of F waves in a healthy adult upper limb?
Answer
C. 25-32 ms
22
The most appropriate patient position for ultrasound of supraspinatus tendon is
Answer
D. Crass position
23
Which of the following is true regarding H reļ¬ex?
Answer
C. It reļ¬ects monosynaptic arc integrity
24
Which nerve is commonly evaluated in ultrasound for tarsal tunnel syndrome?
Answer
C. Tibial nerve
25
EMG myotonic discharges sound like
Answer
C. Dive bomber
26
Fasciculations in EMG are best described as
Answer
B. Spontaneous ļ¬ring of single motor units
27
NCS is least helpful in evaluating
Answer
C. Anterior horn cell disease
28
In gait analysis kinematics refers to
Answer
B. Movement without regard to force
29
Ground reaction force is a component of which gait analysis parameter?
Answer
B. Kinetics
30
F wave latency is primarily used to asses
Answer
B. Proximal motor nerve segments
31
What is the distance in inches between the rubber end of the crutch and lateral end of toe while measuring crutch length from the anterior axillary fold to the ground?
Answer
C. 6 inch
32
Anti tippers in wheelchair are primarily used to
Answer
C. Prevent the patient from falling backwards
33
Which of the following is not included in basic ADL
Answer
D. Child Rearing
34
Which of the following scale is not used to assess quality of Life?
Answer
C. SCIM
35
Which type of acceleration and braking terminal device is most appropriate in the adapted vehicle for a Person with C6 incomplete tetraplegia?
Answer
A. Tri-pin attached to push-pull angle hand control
36
Which of the following modiļ¬cation in wheelchair allows a hemiplegic patient to propel the wheelchair using one upper limb?
Answer
B. One-arm drive system
37
Which level of complete tetraplegia is the most accurately matched to the adaptive equipment one would use with that level of SCI?
Answer
A. C4 ; balance forearm orthosis
38
Choose the correct sequence for performing a legs-up, long sitting transfer from wheelchair to bed.
Answer
C. Move to the front edge of the wheelchair, lift the ļ¬rst leg onto the bed, lift the second leg onto the bed, position the hands, lift and shift the body
39
Neuro developmental approach is followed by occupational therapist for the treatment of child with spastic diplegia. All of the following is true about this NDT except.
Answer
C. Use limb synergies
40
Which of the following helps in improving the Dynamic balance control?
Answer
D. Bouncing on a trampoline
41
Which of the following is the most appropriate plan of care for a child with cerebral palsy with GMFCS level 4?
Answer
D. Wheelchair ļ¬tting for posture and pressure relief
42
A patient sustained traumatic brain injury (TBI) 4 days ago starts exhibiting a heightened state of activity. The patient exhibit non-purposeful, incoherent or inappropriate behaviours and has no short-term recall with sort and nonselective attention. What would be the level according to the Ranchos Level of Cognitive functioning?
Answer
C. IV
43
A 60 year old patient of stroke with _____________ modiļ¬ed Rankin scale score will be unable to walk without assistance and cannot independently attend to their bodily needs.
Answer
B. 4
44
All are true regarding ICF except :
Answer
C. Shift the focus from impact to cause
45
A patient of stroke have increased muscle tone in Left upper Limb. One examination the tone is increase throughout range of motion in his left arm in ļ¬exion and extension and the examiner was able to move the limb without diļ¬culty. What is the level of spasticity according to the modiļ¬ed Ashworth scale score
Answer
D. 2
46
What is the best acute predictor of outcome in traumatic brain injury (TBI) in regards to the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS)
Answer
C. Best motor response
47
Which of the following aspects of daily life is not assessed by Oswestry Disability Index (ODI)?
Answer
D. Eating
48
A 42-year-old wheelchair dependent man with a T10 neurological level of spinal cord injury is complains of numbness and tingling in his hands. The symptoms are localised to thumb and index ļ¬ngers. On examination there was no sensory loss and the symptoms were reproduce with tap over the volar surface of wrist. According to the International Spinal Cord Injury Pain (ISCIP) classiļ¬cation, his pain would be classiļ¬ed as :
Answer
D. Neuropathic pain
49
All of the following are parameters in Functional Independence Measure (FIM) instrument except -
Answer
C. Speech and language control
50
In grade 3 OA according to kellgren's classiļ¬cation, Which of the following ļ¬ndings would be present in X ray?
Answer
C. Joint space reduction and loose bodies
51
Which of the following statements about Compound Muscle Action Potential (CMAP) area is True?
Answer
C. Diļ¬erences in CMAP area between distal and proximal sites help identify conduction block in demyelinating lesions
52
Which of the following statements about dorsal root ganglia (DRG) and sensory nerve action potentials (SNAPs) is True?
Answer
B. Peripheral sensory ļ¬bers originate from dorsal root ganglion cells, which are bipolar neurons located near the intervertebral foramina.
53
Which of the following ļ¬ndings is MOST consistent with an axonal loss lesion?
Answer
D. Normal or slightly prolonged distal latencies and slightly decreased conduction velocities, with decreased amplitudes.
54
During nerve conduction studies performed within the ļ¬rst 3 days of an acute axonal loss lesion, which of the following patterns may be observed, potentially mimicking demyelination?
Answer
A. Normal amplitude with distal stimulation but reduced amplitude with proximal stimulation, simulating conduction block.
55
Which of following statements correctly distinguishes the H reļ¬ex from the F response?
Answer
C. The H reļ¬ex involves a sensory aļ¬erent, a synapse in the spinal cord, and a motor eļ¬erent pathway
56
Which of the following best explains the mechanism behind postexercise facilitation observed in neuromuscular junction (NMJ) disorders?
Answer
A. It involves increased mobilization of quanta and calcium accumultation, enhancing endplate potentials (EPPs) above threshold.
57
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding Martin-Gruber anastomosis (MGA)?
Answer
B. The most common type of MGA involves crossover of median-to-ulnar ļ¬bers supplying the First Dorsal Interosseous (FDI) muscle, which may cause an amplitude drop between wrist and below-elbow stimulation.
58
Which of the following best describes the eļ¬ects of cool limb temperature on nerve conduction studies?
Answer
D. Slowed conduction velocity, prolonged distal latency and increased amplitude and duration of potentials (especially SNAPs).
59
How does elbow position aļ¬ect ulnar nerve conduction studies across the elbow?
Answer
A. Elbow extension underestimates the true nerve length, leading to artifactually slowed conduction velocity across the elbow segment.
60
Which of the following statements best reļ¬ects the signiļ¬cance of paraspinal muscle abnormalities in needle EMG?
Answer
B. They are best used to conļ¬rm a lesion at or proximal to the spinal nerve roots.
61
Which of the following is most characteristic of a complete ligament rupture?
Answer
C. Signiļ¬cantly increased joint play with no ļ¬rm end point on ligament stress testing.
62
Which of the following is the most eļ¬ective and commonly used immediate treatment for exercise - associated muscle cramps (EAMC)?
Answer
B. Passive stretching to activate Golgi tendon organ inhibition
63
Which of the following upper limb bones is most likely to sustain a stress fracture in individuals who run while carrying hand weights?
Answer
A. Scapula
64
In a structured training programme of "periodization", how is training typically adjusted during the fourth week of a mesocycle?
Answer
C. It is decreased slightly to allow rest and adaptation
65
Which of the following most accurately characterizes overtraining syndrome in athletes?
Answer
B. Persistent symptoms including performance decline despite over 2 weeks of rest.
66
Which of the following statements best explains the increased risk of medial knee injuries in breaststroke swimmers?
Answer
D. The whip-like breaststroke kick generates a valgus force at the knee
67
Which class of antihypertensive medications is generally recommended as ļ¬rst-line treatment for athletes to minimize performance - related side eļ¬ects?
Answer
A. ACE inhibitors or calcium channel blockers
68
Which of the following supplements have been shown by scientiļ¬c evidence to signiļ¬cantly increase lean body mass and strength when combined with resistance training?
Answer
B. Creatine and Ī²-hydorxy-Ī²-methylbutyrate (HMB)
69
Which of the following components are included in the female athelete triad?
Answer
B. Low energy availability, menstrual dysfunction and low bone mineral density
70
Which of the following best describes the mixed technique in cricket fast blowing?
Answer
D. There is a dissociation between shoulder and pelvis alignment at BFC, with a separation angle typically around 30Ā°.
71
Salient features of PWD Act, 1995 mentioned in its title, were all except-
Answer
B. Inclusion
72
Niramaya Health Insurance scheme is for which of the following disability mainly-
Answer
A. Mental retardation
73
Lhermitte's sign was ļ¬rst described in patients having
Answer
C. Multiple Sclerosis
74
Permanent Physical Impairment due to short stature of Dwarļ¬sm is calculated if height is less than
Answer
A. 4 feet 10 inches
75
Piriformis syndrome is characterized by all except
Answer
B. Hip adductor weakness
76
Grade-aids in wheelchair are
Answer
D. For patients to negotiate hills
77
Knee buckling on initial contact in Transformoral amputee is due to
Answer
C. Weak hip extensors
78
Shoulder saddle and chest strap has which of the following feature
Answer
D. Greater lifting ability
79
INCLEN tool is used for diagnosis of
Answer
B. ASD
80
Additional weightage of 10% in evaluation of permanent physical impairment of upper extremity is given for following accompanying factors except
Answer
A. Limb length discrepancy
81
All are X-linked muscular dystrophies except
Answer
C. Limb girdle muscular dystrophy
82
IDEAS (Indian Disability and Assessment Scale) is used for following disorders except
Answer
D. Delirium
83
Stability components for evaluation of permanent physical impairment of lower extremities as per latest GOI guidelines, are all except
Answer
B. Walking on slope
84
Normal urodynamics ļ¬ndings have all components except
Answer
A. Bladder wall electromyography
85
Following are conļ¬rmatory signs of complete bowel care program except
Answer
C. Flatus is passed on digital stimulation
86
Which of the following triad best explains Parkinson's disease
Answer
D. Postural instability, Resting tremor, Bradykinesia
87
Diseases covered under disability due to blood disorders are
Answer
B. Haemophilia, Sickle cell disorders, Thalassemia
88
Latest guidelines for assessment of disability came in existence in year
Answer
D. 2024
89
Manual Ability Classiļ¬cation System is used in assessment of disability in patients with
Answer
A. Cerebral palsy
90
Anterior cerebral artery syndrome is characterised by
Answer
B. Sparing of hands
91
Which of the following is NOT TRUE regarding Secondary Prevention of Stroke?
Answer
C. Target INR of more than 3 is usually used when there is Atrial ļ¬brillation while monitoring Warfarin.
92
ICD 10 criteria to deļ¬ne Post Concussion Syndrome includes all EXCEPT :
Answer
D. Seizures
93
Interval training is preferred over continuous training in rehabilitation of COPD patients because
Answer
D. Better adaptation to exercise
94
Stage 2 Lymphedema is characterised by :
Answer
B. Subcutaneous ļ¬brosis
95
What is the maximum increase in heart rate that can be considered safe in acute cardiac rehabilitation phase in post Myocardial infarction patients :
Answer
C. 20 beats per minute
96
Mention the most common cardiac manifestation of SLE :
Answer
A. Pericarditis
97
Which is NOT TRUE about Spondylolysis :
Answer
B. No genetic predisposition
98
In the context of Denosumab use for Osteoporosis which of the following best explains the rationale for requiring a blood test before each injection?
Answer
B. To conļ¬rm normal serum calcium levels to prevent exacerbation of hypocalcaemia
99
Which is TRUE about Intrathecal baclofen :
Answer
A. Has minimal systemic side eļ¬ects
100
Regarding trans femoral prosthetic design, which of the following is NOT TRUE :
Answer
D. In Ischial containment socket, greater trochanter provides a bony block that limits lateral socket shifting
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