| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Pulmonary Medicine - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 066/2019/OL |
| Category Code | 011/2019 |
| Date of Test | 1 January 2020 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which among the following is a marker for Type II alveolar epithelial cells
Answer
D. Alkaline phosphatase
2
Regarding cervical rib, which among the following is FLASE
Answer
B. Symptom due to compression are more prevalent in males
3
Which among the following group is least likely to progress to active tuberculosis once infected with tubercle bacilli
Answer
A. Patients on TNF alpha inhibitors
4
Which among the following antibiotics has got good penetration to respiratory secretions
Answer
C. Macrolides
5
Which among the following Immunohistochemistry marker is not useful in diagnosing lung adenocarcinoma is
Answer
Question Cancelled
6
All the following are mast cell mediators EXCEPT
Answer
D. Collagenase
7
Difference between the alveolar and pleural pressures is termed as
Answer
B. Transpulmonary pressure
8
As per the 2019 WHO guidelines on drug resistant Tuberculosis treatment, all the following are highly effective and strongly recommended for inclusion in all oral longer regimens EXCEPT
Answer
C. Ethionamide
9
The minute ventilation above which route of airflow switches from predominately nasal to oronasal breathing is
Answer
D. 30L/min
10
Regarding honeycomb spaces in usual interstitial pneumonia (UIP) all are true EXCEPT
Answer
C. There will be destruction of normal airspaces
11
Regarding Bedaquiline which is FALSE
Answer
B. Targets the rpoB gene encoding the subunit c of the ATP synthase of Mycobacterium tuberculosis
12
About Riociguat which is true
Answer
A. Stimulator of soluble guanylate cyclase (sGC)
13
SERAPHIN trial is related to management of
Answer
D. pulmonary arterial hypertension
14
"Differentiation syndrome" is an adverse event seen during treatment with
Answer
B. All-trans retinoic acid
15
Searles and Mckendry diagnostic criteria is used to detect pulmonary involvement due to
Answer
C. Methotrexate
16
Predictive postoperative lung function should be estimated for patients with and FEV1 or DLco less than
Answer
A. 80% of predicted
17
Intraoperative risk factors associated with the development of postoperative pulmonary complication is least for
Answer
A. Hip surgery
18
In Tsuboi classification of tumor-bronchus relationship, when the bronchus is compressed, narrowed, and displaced by the tumor, but the bronchial mucosa is intact will be categorized as which pattern
Answer
C. Type III
19
Flexible fiber optic bronchoscopy was pioneered by
Answer
B. Ikeda
20
In order to maintain procedural competence for medical thoracoscopy, minimum number of procedures to be performed yearly by operator should be
Answer
D. 10
21
Anti TB drug which can cause metallic taste
Answer
C. Fluroquinolone
22
Acid fastness is a property of all of the following organisms except
Answer
C. Cryptococcus
23
Treatment of LTBI can reduce the risk of progression to active disease by abou --------%
Answer
B. 60%
24
The cut off value (confirmed by repeat ECG) of QTcF value above which all the QTc prolonging drugs should be discontinued.
Answer
C. 500ms
25
TB meningitis should be treated with first line ATT for at least------ months
Answer
B. 9
26
Regarding starting DRTB drugs in a HIV infected patient, pick the wrong statement
Answer
A. Unlike drug sensitive pulmonary tuberculosis, ART should be started along with DRTB drugs.
27
Pick the incorrect statement regarding tubercular pleural effusion
Answer
C. Haemolysed blood in fluid sample may cause false over estimation of ADA
28
The non tubercular mycobacterium proposed to have an etiological relationship with Crohns disease is
Answer
B. M.avium subsp. Paratuberculosis
29
Regarding VAT (ventilator associated tracheobronchitis) pick the wrong statement
Answer
D. Most common organism implicated is pneumococcus
30
Which of the following is a extracellular functioning PRR(Pattern Recognition Receptor)
Answer
A. TLR 6
31
The pneumonia which is often associated with bullous myringitis
Answer
A. Mycoplasma pneumonia
32
False positive beta-D glucan assay is seen with all except.
Answer
D. Intra Venous Ringer lactate
33
Which of the following is not true regarding Anthrax
Answer
C. Causative agent is a large, square ended gram negative bacilli
34
In cystic fibrosis select the wrong statement
Answer
B. 60% of patients have meconium ileus as the initial manifestation
35
All the above are features of Lofgren's syndrome except
Answer
D. Lupus pernio
36
HRCT pattern consistent with idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis are all except
Answer
A. Peribronchovascular predominance
37
The drug recommended for the treatment of idiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
Answer
B. Nintedanib
38
GAP score is used as a mortality predictor in which condition?
Answer
A. ldiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
39
Reversed halo sign is seen in all conditions except
Answer
C. ldiopathic pulmonary fibrosis
40
The usual time frame for the development of radiation pneumonitis is
Answer
C. 6 weeks to 6 months
41
Causes of acute respiratory distress in SLE patient is
Answer
D. All of the above
42
Caplan syndrome is seen in
Answer
A. Rheumatoid arthritis
43
The most common ILD pattern in systemic sclerosis is
Answer
B. Non-specific interstitial pneumonia
44
Birbeck granules is seen in
Answer
D. Langerhans cell histiocytosis
45
Black pleura sign is seen in
Answer
D. Pulmonary alveolar microlithiasis
46
The most common antimicrobial agent that causes pulmonary fibrosis
Answer
C. Nitrofurantoin
47
Most common genetic mutation seen in cystic fibrosis is
Answer
A. ΞF508
48
Oral drug ivacaftor is used in the treatment of
Answer
C. Cystic fibrosis
49
Vanishing lung syndrome is seen in which condition
Answer
B. bullous lung disease
50
All are used in tobacco smoking cessation except
Answer
D. e-cigarette
51
Empey's index is
Answer
A. FEV1:PEFR ratio
52
Diagnostic criteria for obesity hypoventilation syndrome include all except
Answer
C. Daytime PaOβ <60mmHg
53
Which of the following feature is not a part of the Well's Score for predicting the probability of Pulmonary Embolism?
Answer
C. Age>50
54
Which among the following is not true regarding Pulmonary veno occlusive disease?
Answer
C. Raised PAWP
55
McConnells sign is a sonologic sign diagnostic of :
Answer
D. Pulmonary embolism
56
What is the most likely cause of pulmonary aneurysm?
Answer
Question Cancelled
57
Curacao diagnostic criteria is used to diagnose which of the following?
Answer
D. Hereditary hemorrhagic telengectasia
58
A flow volume loop is showing plateauing of the inspiratory loop only. The most likely cause is:
Answer
B. Variable extra-thoracic obstruction
59
A patient with severe COPD enters a respiratory rehabilitation program. This is most likely to improve:
Answer
C. Exercise tolerance
60
Fatal asthma attacks are best predicted by:
Answer
B. Increased bronchodilator use
61
According to GOLD Guidelines 2019, Inhaled steroids are not considered beneficial if AEC is less than
Answer
D. 100
62
Which of the following parameters would be needed to calculate a patient's BODE index?
Answer
B. Height
63
Which of the following is likely to be positive in a case of Follicular bronchiolitis?
Answer
A. Anticyclic citrullinated peptide antibody
64
In a case of COPD with pulmonary hypertension (Mean PAP 50 mm Hg), which is the best form of treatment?
Answer
D. None
65
Which among the following is the most pathognomic radiologic sign of ABPA?
Answer
B. High attenuation mucus
66
Which among the following pattern of calcification in a SPN is considered to increase likelihood of malignancy?
Answer
C. Stippled
67
According to current TNM classification of Non Small Cell Ca lung, a tumor of size 6 cm in right upper lobe with a satellite nodule of 1 cm in the same lobe, subcarinal lymph node and pleural fluid cytology positive belongs to which stage?
Answer
D. T3N2M1a
68
Which of the following IHC stains is most useful for identifying adenocarcinoma of pulmonary origin from metastatic lesions?
Answer
C. Thyroid transcription factor & thyroglobulin
69
Which is the commonest cell type of scar carcinoma?
Answer
B. Adeno carcinoma
70
Positive predictors of response to EGFR targeted therapy in lung cancer include all the following except:
Answer
D. K-ras mutations
71
Pemberton's sign is used to demonstrate which disease?
Answer
C. Retrosternal goiter
72
Most common location for ectopic parathyroid tumour is
Answer
A. Anterior mediastinum
73
Calcification in mediastinal neuroblastoma is
Answer
C. Seen in 80%
74
In castlemans disease HHV 8 is implicated in patho genesis of
Answer
A. Multicentric disease
75
Which of following statements regarding Solitary fibrous tumour of pleura are true
Answer
Question Cancelled
76
In USG assessment of pleural effusion, effusion is assessed as moderate if
Answer
B. Between the range of one to two probes
77
Which of the following USG finding is a definite sign of pneumothorax
Answer
C. Presence of lung point
78
Which is the worst prognostic indicator among the following regarding parapneumonic effusion
Answer
Question Cancelled
79
Regarding TNM staging of malignant mesothelioma, which of the following is T3
Answer
Question Cancelled
80
Explosive pleuritis is
Answer
C. Rapid development of pleural effusion despite minimal pneumonia in Streptococcus pyogens infection
81
Obesity hypoventilation syndrome is defined as
Answer
A. BMl β₯ 30kg/m2 and daytime awake PaCO2 β₯ 45mm Hg
82
Regarding fluid resuscitation in septic shock which of the following statement is correct
Answer
D. When large volume is infused, normal saline may cause renal damage
83
Which statement is most accurate regarding pneumococcal vaccine
Answer
D. All persons β₯ 65 years should first receive PCV13 followed by PPSV23
84
Long term ventilation is defined as requirement of daily ventilator support for more than
Answer
Question Cancelled
85
Clinical pulmonary infection score is considered to be positive if it is equal to or more than
Answer
C. 6
86
K complex is
Answer
A. Well delineated negative sharp wave followed by a positive component lasting at least 0.5 sec duration
87
Regarding CPAP titration in OSA, which of the following statement is correct
Answer
A. Optimal titration reduces RDI to <5 per hour for at least 15-min duration and should include supine REM sleep that is not continually interrupt by spontaneous arousals or awakenings
88
Which one of the following anticoagulant can be used without initial parenteral anticoagulation in pulmonary thromboembolism
Answer
B. Rivaroxaban
89
As per ACCP guidelines, in patients with a first venous thromboembolism that is an unprovoked proximal DVT of the leg or pulmonary embolism and who have a high bleeding risk, duration of anticoagulation is
Answer
A. 3 months
90
Recommended dose of talc for pleurodesis in malignant effusion is
Answer
C. 4-6 gsm
91
Which of the following is NOT a preferred recommendation for prevention of ventilator associated pneumonia
Answer
D. Early tracheostomy
92
Regarding NIV use, which of the following statement is wrong
Answer
D. In patients with non-CF bronchiectasis with AHRF, NIV should not be tried
93
Weaning from mechanical ventilation is prolonged if the time duration is more than
Answer
Question Cancelled
94
Which among the following is an indication for veno venous ECMO
Answer
Question Cancelled
95
Which of the following statement about clinical effect of obesity on ARDS is correct?
Answer
B. Risk of developing ARDS is increased in obese patients
96
According to ATS guidelines which among the following is the preferred option for microbiologic diagnosis of VAP
Answer
A. Noninvasive sampling with semiquantitative cultures
97
Patients with scoliosis will have significant ventilator impairment if the Cobb angle is more than
Answer
D. 100 degrees
98
In patients with acute type 1 respiratory failure, Oxygen flow should be adjusted to maintain SpO2 around
Answer
B. 94-98%
99
Which among the following is not a feature of nicotine withdrawal
Answer
A. Tachycardia
100
As per surviving sepsis campaign, for resuscitation of a patient with septic shock, which of the following recommendation is correct
Answer
D. At least 30mL/kg of IV crystalloid fluid be given within the first 3 hours
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet β start the discussion.