| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Reproductive Medicine - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 056/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 568/2023 |
| Date of Test | 23 May 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statement is not true regarding testis?
Answer
B. Foetal Leydig cells produce Anti Mullerian Hormone (AMH)
2
Which of the following is a remnant of the mesonephric duct?
Answer
D. Duct of Gartner
3
Which of the following does not constitute placental barrier in full term pregnancy?
Answer
A. Cytotrophoblast
4
Regarding physiology of gonadotropin releasing hormone (GnRH) and its disease states, which of the following options is correct? (i) Women with rapid pulses of GnRH have anovulatory cycles. (ii) In premenopausal women treatment with aromatase inhibitors leads to decreased serum follicle stimulating hormone levels (iii) There is selective clinical phenotype in Kallman Syndrome, dental agenesis is seen in patients with FGF8 or FGFR1 mutation (iv) The activation of gene expression of speciļ¬c beta subunits of gonadotropins depends on stimulation of pituitary gonadotrophs by intermittent GnRH pulses
Answer
C. (i), (iii) and (iv)
5
Regarding spermatogenesis, which of the following options is correct? (i) Oligospermia in a patient who underwent scrotal irradiation 4 weeks ago is explained because of the treatment he received (ii) In male infants with congenital gonadotropin deļ¬ciency lack of postnatal surge in serum gonadotropin concentration results in a lower number of sertoli cells and spermatogonia (iii) Intratesticular testosterone concentration and FSH determine spermatogeneis (iv) Of all the cells in the testis, Spermatogonia A dark are least sensitive to ionising irradiation
Answer
D. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
6
Regarding fetal and neonatal endocrine physiology which of the following options is correct? (i) Epidemiological date report impairment to intellectual function and behaviour in infants with normal thyroid function but are born to mothers with mild untreated or subclinical hypothyroidism. (ii) Plasma Oxytocin concentration in human cord blood are elevated in association with fetal bradycardia or meconium aspiration. (iii) Cells with zona reticularis morphology are detectable in human adrenal cortex at 3 months in the involuting fetal zone (iv) Speciļ¬c genetic mechanisms dictating ovarian development include WNT/beta catenin and FOXO/FOXL2 pathways
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iv)
7
Depot Gosarelin is used in all except
Answer
D. Testicular Seminoma
8
Ulipristal is a
Answer
B. Selective Progestrone Receptor Modulator
9
Select the drug therapy for prolactinoma
Answer
A. Carbergoline
10
Following statements are true regarding carcinoma cervix. (i) HPV 16 accounts for 60% of cervical cancer (ii) LSIL is not treated like a premalignant condition. (iii) HPV DNA testing has higher sensitivity, but lower speciļ¬city compared to Pap test. (iv) Most common histological subtype is squamous cell carcinoma
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
11
The following statements and true regarding germ cell tumours (i) Germ cell tumours account for 80% of all ovarian tumours (ii) Most of them are benign cystic teratomas. (iii) Inļ¬ammatory limbic encephalitis is a paraneoplastic syndrome associated with teratoma (iv) About 1% of teratomas undergo malignant transformation
Answer
C. (ii), (iii) and (iv)
12
All the following infections arise ļ¬rst in the epididymis and spread to testes except
Answer
C. Syphilis
13
Which of the following statements is/are correct? (i) Trophoblast cells do not express major histocompatibility class I antigen HLA-A and B (ii) Extra villous cytotrophoblast cells express classical Major histocompatibility class I HLA-C and the nonclassical HLA E, F and G-products. (iii) Selected trophoblast cells express major histocompatibilty class II molecules. (iv) Natural killer cells kill cells that do not express major histocompatibility class molecules.
Answer
C. (i), (ii), (iv) are correct
14
Progesterone helps in the maintenance of the semi allogenic implanting fetus by
Answer
C. Increasing expression of Leukaemia inhibiting factor
15
The key enzymes necessary for estrogen biosynthesis by placenta are all Except
Answer
A. Steroid 17 alpha hydroxylase
16
The risk of an oļ¬spring with full mutation in a woman with fragile X premutation is dependent primarily on
Answer
A. number of DNA triple repeat
17
During the cyclic follicular development phase in the ovaries, the Follicle Stimulating Hormone (FSH) level is suppressed by all Except
Answer
D. Rising Activin levels
18
A 17-year girl presented with primary amenorrhoea. Her height is 175 cm. She had tanner stage 3 breast development, bilateral inguinal masses, sparse to no pubic and axillary hair, normal female external genitalia. Vagina was blind, 3 cm deep. Uterus was absent on sonography. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
B. Testicular feminization
19
A girl achieved menarche and developed severe hirsutism at 12 years of age. Her 17-hydroxy progesterone level was 75 ng/dl and free testosterone level was 430ng/dl. The next step for diagnosis is
Answer
C. CT Scan abdomen and pelvis
20
Vasomotor symptoms associated with menopause can be treated by all Except
Answer
B. Ospemifene
21
Regarding sperm evaluation in infertile couple
Answer
B. Sperm oxidative stress negatively aļ¬ect all sperm function and reproductive outcome
22
In case of frozen embryo transfer (FET)
Answer
D. Natural cycle results in a thicker endometrium as compared to hormone replacement therapy (HRT) cycle.
23
Hyperprolactinemia is caused by all except
Answer
D. Bromocriptine
24
Regarding ART Act and Surrogacy Act of India
Answer
A. Couple undergoing Surrogacy must have both gamete from the intending couple
25
Regarding Ovarian hyper stimulation syndrome (OHSS):
Answer
B. Elevated haematocrit, reduced serum osmolality and serum sodium is indicative of OHSS
26
All are true about cause of anovulation Except:
Answer
D. Hypothalamic-pituitary imaging is indicated when hyperprolactinemia is coexist with hypothyroidism
27
All are true about Uterine biophysical proļ¬le Except
Answer
A. Ovarian artery doppler PI is considered as most informative parameter
28
Criteria for a failed pregnancy includes all Except
Answer
D. Absence of an embryo with a heartbeat 15 days after a gestational sac with a yolk sac was seen
29
Regarding fetal reduction
Answer
B. Selective fetal reduction is done in dichorionic diamniotic twin pregnancy with one fetus diagnosed with trisomy 21
30
Best method to diagnose tubal patency is
Answer
D. Laparoscopy with tubal patency assay
31
Ultrasound in early pregnancy can indicate a possible scar pregnancy if
Answer
C. Empty uterine cavity and cervix
32
Endometrial biopsy is indicated in women if transvaginal ultrasound showed endometrial thickness to be 5mm in
Answer
A. Postmenopausal women with recurrent bleeding P/V
33
As per WHO 2021, all of the following are normal values for semen analysis expect
Answer
D. Normal Morphology: 6%
34
Duration of treatment with antibiotics for genital infections in men is:
Answer
D. Six weeks
35
Which of the following statements about varicocele and its surgery is not correct?
Answer
D. There is level I evidence that varicocele surgery improves pregnancy outcome
36
Which statement about intracytoplasmic sperm injection (ICSI) is not true?
Answer
A. For ICSI minimum sperm concentration should be atleast 10 million sperms/ml
37
Which of the following is not indication of artiļ¬cial insemination donor?
Answer
C. Genetic disease in women
38
Which of the following drugs is used for treatment of premature ejaculation?
Answer
A. Dapoxetine
39
During invitro fertilisation and embryo transfer (IVF, ET), the embryo implanted into the prepared endometrium has how may cells?
Answer
C. Eight cells
40
The commonest site of implantation of trophoblast in uterine cavity is
Answer
B. Posterior surface of upper uterine segment
41
Ovulation occurs after how many hours of LH surge:
Answer
D. 30-36 hours
42
Best test for measurement of ovarian reserve is
Answer
A. AMH levels
43
Gestational surrogacy is advised in the following candidates except:
Answer
C. Turner's Syndrome
44
Which of the following ovulation inducing drug is associated with least risk of ovarian hyperstimulation syndrome (OHSS)?
Answer
B. Letrozole
45
Which of the following is not the pre requisite for medical management with methotrexate for ectopic pregnancy?
Answer
D. Fetal cardiac activity should be present
46
Rubin's criteria are used for diagnosis of which ectopic pregnancy?
Answer
C. Cervical pregnancy
47
As per Royal College of Obstetricians and Gynaecologists recommendations, which of the following investigations is not recommended for evaluation of a patient of recurrent miscarriage?
Answer
A. TORCH screening
48
Which of the following cervical cerclage operation is done by abdominal route?
Answer
B. Benson and Durfee cerclage
49
Triploid (69, XXX or 69, XXY) karyotype is seen in which type of gestational trophoblastic disease?
Answer
B. Partial mole
50
Twin peak sign on utlrasound is seen in which type of twin pregnancy?
Answer
D. Diamniotic dichorionic twin pregnancy
51
32 year old lady, married for 4 years, P0000 visits the clinic with USG report of ļ¬broid uterus and AMH of 0.8ngm/ml
Answer
B. Pedunculated subserosal ļ¬broid at fundus is the cause for infertility
52
All is true about polycystic ovarian syndrome except
Answer
B. The Endocrine dysfunction of PCOS does not involve somatotrophic axis (growth hormone) and adrenocorticotrophic axis
53
Regarding Ovarian Follicular development
Answer
C. Androgen excess is needed for ovulation to take place
54
Female genital Tuberculosis is a common cause for infertility. All is true except
Answer
D. Tubal reconstructive surgery is advisable and has return of fertility to 80%
55
In the diagnosis algorithm for early diagnosis of ectopic pregnancy, following has been recommended, except
Answer
C. Mass of 1 cm can be identiļ¬ed
56
Following statements hold true regarding mechanism of subfertility in endometriosis, except
Answer
C. Endometrioma does not have any eļ¬ect of AMH
57
Post-operative adhesion Spectrum is a persistent problem. All holds true with it; except
Answer
B. Modifying surgical technique by adopting laparoscopic method does not decrease adhesion formation
58
In relation to genomic processes following statements are true except:
Answer
B. Expressivity is the degree of gynotypic expression of a particular genotype
59
For implementation of carrier screening guidelines
Answer
D. As per ACOG Committee opinion published in 2017; screening for hemoglobinopathies, CF and SMA should be oļ¬ered to all
60
Chromosome analysis is done by all methods except
Answer
D. Mass spectroscopy
61
In Prenatal Diagnosis of Skeletal Dysplasia,
Answer
A. Antenatal assessment of risk of skeletal dysplasia cannot be done by non- invasive method
62
Following is true for Banding techniques for chromosome analysis except
Answer
D. They do not permit detail description of chromosomal or structural rearrangement
63
Following is true for Recurrent Pregnancy loss, except
Answer
C. Balanced Translocation is present in 50% of RPL in any one of the partner
64
For single gene disorder following stands correct except
Answer
B. cannot be inherited through one or more generation of the family
65
Cytogenetics when combined with Molecular Medicine evolves to form a speciality of molecular cytogenetics. Following is true except
Answer
D. Computational tools are used to recreate the genome in saline
66
Which of the following statements is correct regarding a child born through ART?
Answer
D. Child has the right to collect information about DNA ļ¬ngerprint of genetic parents on reaching 18 years
67
All of the following statements regarding National Database for Human Fertility in India are true, except
Answer
B. India has well documented database for Human Fertility procedures
68
Information counselling for those undergoing ART procedures should include all except
Answer
B. Should avoid discussing about possibility of failure to prevent risk of depression
69
According to Surrogacy Regulation Act 2021, all are true except
Answer
B. Both the gametes used... sperm or oocyte can be donated ones
70
The ICMR ART Regulation Act addresses all of the following except
Answer
B. Ensure uniformity of qualiļ¬cations and skills of the professionals in the ART clinic
71
Vitriļ¬cation of sperms causes all of the following except
Answer
A. Increases motility and viability compared to slow freeze techniques
72
Number of embryos transferred during IVF
Answer
C. More than three permissible in special circumstances
73
Which of the following statements are true in speciļ¬cations in CARA, Dept of Health and Family Welfare?
Answer
A. Single male cannot adopt a girl child
74
Surrogacy Act 2022 - all of the following statements are false except
Answer
A. It is mandatory for woman agreeing for surrogacy to undergo strict screening tests for communicable infections
75
Which of the following statements are false?
Answer
A. Ova derived from fetus can be used for IVF in ART clinics
76
Which one of the following cryoprotectants used in vitriļ¬cation process are nonpermeable?
Answer
A. Sucrose
77
According to Surrogacy Regulation Act, which statement is false?
Answer
B. Advertisement for surrogacy can be displayed in the ART clinics
78
Which of the following statements are false?
Answer
B. Only married women are eligible for ART
79
Which of following statements are ļ¬ase?
Answer
B. Sperms can be donated irrespective of the age of the man
80
The following statements are true except
Answer
C. Speciļ¬cations for storage of gametes and embryos can be decided by each ART clinic independently
81
In ART, same AI applications cannot be used for 1. Sperm selection and analysis 2. Embryo grading and selection 3. Ethnic disease population 4. Oocyte evaluation and selection
Answer
C. 1 and 4
82
Following are statements regarding cervical cerclage operation; identify true statement/statements 1. An emergency cerclage, when exposed membranes are present, with cervical length less than 25 mm is known as rescue cerclage 2. Cervical cerclage can be classiļ¬ed by indication or by level of placement 3. Low cervical cerclage, inserted transversely without bladder mobilisation is known as Shirodkar's oepration 4. High cervical cerclage, transvaginally is called McDonald's cerclage
Answer
C. 1, 2 and 3
83
Which biochemical feature is often seen in hyperandrogenism associated with infertility?
Answer
C. Elevated levels of LH
84
Extremely low estriol level in pregnancy indicates, 1. Placental aromatase deļ¬ciency 2. Adrenal hypofunction 3. Impending or present fetal demise 4. Drug related eļ¬ects
Answer
C. All of the above
85
Which are true statements about AMH? 1. Production by granulosa cells of preantral and antral follicles 2. Primary function is autocrine and paracrine regulation of follicular development 3. AMH levels increases with oral contraceptive use 4. Low threshold values have good speciļ¬city for poor response to ovarian stimulation True statements are
Answer
C. 1, 2 and 4
86
Most reliable simple test for ovulatory function is:
Answer
B. Serum progesterone level
87
Infertility relating to mycomas are due to mechanism like, 1. Displacement of the cervix decreasing exposure to sperm 2. Distortion of the uterine cavity inhibiting sperm or ovum transport 3. Distorted adnexal anatomy, interfering with ovum capture 4. Anovulation True statement/statements are:
Answer
D. 1, 2 and 3
88
About male reproductive function, with ageing, 1. Semen volume and sperm motility decreases 2. Pregnancy rate decreases and time to conception increases 3. Serum total and free testosterone levels decrease 4. Advanced paternal age is associated with small increase in risk of spontaneous abortion Correct statements are:
Answer
B. All of the above
89
Following are disorders of sperm transport except, 1. Young syndrome 2. Klinefelter syndrome 3. Kartagener syndrome 4. Kallman syndrome
Answer
C. 2 and 4
90
Test used to diļ¬erentiate viable non mobile spermatozoa from deed spermatozoa
Answer
B. Vitality test
91
True statements regarding clomiphene are: 1. Clomiphine is ineļ¬ective in women with hypergonadotrophic hypogogonadism 2. Clomiphine is ineļ¬ective in women with hypogonadotrophic hpyogonadism 3. Clomiphine treatment is also been oļ¬ered to normally ovulating women with unexplained infertility especially Young with short duration of infertility 4. Empiric clomiphene treatment for unexplained infertility is most eļ¬ective when combined with IUI
Answer
C. 2, 3 and 4
92
Which of the following statement regarding metformin is/are correct? 1. Metformin is currently not recommended as a treatment for weight loss or anovulation 2. The use of metformin in women with PCOS is justiļ¬ed only in the presence of IGT or Type 2 Diabetes 3. Metformin is used prophylactically to prevent diabetes and to treat obesity 4. If lifestyle modiļ¬cation fails to reduce blood sugar, metformin is used
Answer
D. 1, 2, 4
93
The ideal time for multifetal pregnancy reduction under transabdominal ultrasound guidance is
Answer
C. 10 - 14 weeks
94
The absolute indications of IVF are 1. Bilateral tubal block 2. Resistant anovulation 3. Premature ovarian failure 4. Total asthenospermia
Answer
B. 1, 3 and 4
95
Which of the following are correct statements regarding PGT-M(PGD)? 1. PGD is indicated for couples at risk for transmitting a speciļ¬c genetic abnormality to their oļ¬springs 2. Used to detect genetic mutation that predisposes to a disease 3. To detect unbalanced chromosomal translocations 4. PCR is the method of choice for PGT-M
Answer
D. All of the above
96
Which of the following are incorrect statement/statements regarding fertility preservations? 1. Malignant diseases before chemotherapy 2. Oocyte cryopreservation can be done in prepuberty 3. Cryopreservation of embryos and oocytes fertility preservation options 4. Delays chemotherapy in case of embryo cryopreservation and oocyte cryopreservation
Answer
B. 2
97
Which of the following is the method of choice of treatment for Asherman syndrome? 1. Blind curettage of the endometrial cavity 2. pressure lavage with normal saline under guidance of TVUS 3. Hysteroscopy 4. Lysis using a balloon catheter under ļ¬uoroscopic control
Answer
B. 3
98
Cervix serves as a sperm reservoir for
Answer
D. 72 hours
99
The correct statement/statements regarding preovulatory expansion of cumulus oophorus, 1. Increases the chance of encounter with one of the few spermatozoa that have reached the far section of the tube 2. Prevents sperm penetration and fertilisation 3. This facilitates sperm passage through the cumulus 4. Increases the chance of blighted ovum
Answer
C. 1 and 3
100
Factor/factors restricting trophoblast invasion into maternal blood vessels: 1. Plasminogen Activator Inhibitor I 2. Leukotrienes 3. Cytokines 4. Thromboxane A2
Answer
C. 1, 2 and 3
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