| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Surgical Gastroenterology - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 111/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 007/2025 |
| Date of Test | 14 October 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following is false statement regarding anatomy of liver and biliary tract?
Answer
C. The right anterior sectoral bile duct usually runs superiorly, dorsally and then inferiorly around the right portal vein near bifurcation
2
All the following are true statements regarding extrahepatic biliary atresia, Except
Answer
C. Syndromic form of biliary atresia is more common and is reported in more than 40% of cases
3
Most common congenital anomaly of pancreas?
Answer
A. Pancreas Divisum
4
Anatomy of mesorectal space is less important in
Answer
C. Assessing the vascularity of the anastomosis
5
Anatomical basis of post-proximal gastrectomy vascularity is
Answer
A. Right gastroepiploic artery
6
Vascular supply of the colon is most important in
Answer
C. Colonic replacement of esophagus
7
Atrophy hypertrophy complex of the liver
Answer
B. Can result from right portal vein injury
8
Most important vessel to be visualised and addressed in the assessment of pancreatic head carcinoma is
Answer
C. Superior mesenteric vein
9
Aberrant anatomy of the following structure is most important in while performing the splenorenal shunt
Answer
C. Left renal vein
10
In Malrotation
Answer
A. Duodenojejunal ļ¬exure may be on right
11
The statistical measure of the Data which follows normality assumptions
Answer
A. Mean
12
The study design which is useful for generating the hypothesis
Answer
C. Descriptive study
13
The data which are expressed in ordered categories
Answer
B. Ordinal
14
The statistical test which is used to test the associations between two categorical variables
Answer
B. Chi-square test
15
The error which is due to the wrong rejection of true null hypothesis
Answer
D. Type-I error
16
The statistical test ANOVA is an extension of
Answer
B. Independent students t-test
17
Most appropriate sampling method when the population is heterogeneous
Answer
A. Stratiļ¬ed Random Sampling
18
The method used for reducing the measurement bias in interventional trials
Answer
C. Blinding
19
The study design which is used to estimate the incidences
Answer
B. Cohort study
20
Power of the test is deļ¬ned as
Answer
D. 1-Type II error
21
Which motility disorder is characterized by elevated integrated relaxation pressure (IRP) and panesophageal pressurization?
Answer
B. Type II achalasia
22
Which statement about the internal anal sphincter (IAS) is TRUE?
Answer
D. Maintains tone via myogenic activity and sympathetic input
23
A patient with dysphagia shows LES pressure 5 mmHg and absent distal peristalsis. The most likely diagnosis is
Answer
C. Scleroderma esophagus
24
The anorectal angle increases from ~80° to ~110° during defecation. Which statement is CORRECT?
Answer
B. Increase occurs due to puborectalis relaxation
25
Which of the following manometric ļ¬ndings suggests post-myotomy reļ¬ux rather than persistent achalasia?
Answer
A. Normal IRP with hypotensive LES
26
Fletcher risk stratiļ¬cation is for
Answer
D. GIST
27
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the assessment of resectability after neoadjuvant therapy for carcinoma pancreas?
Answer
C. Radiologic downstaging is reliably predictive of large survival beneļ¬t
28
Which molecular/gene alteration is most strongly linked to hereditary diļ¬use gastric cancer and mandates prophylactic total gastrectomy in proven carriers?
Answer
B. CDH1 (E-cadherin) germline mutation
29
Commonest extra mesenteric site of lymphatic spread in rectal cancer is
Answer
D. Internal iliac nodes
30
Which NET is classically associated with gallstones, steatorrhea, and diabetes?
Answer
A. Somatostatinoma
31
Which of the following is the most important independent prognostic factor in gastric carcinoma post resection?
Answer
C. Nodal status (N stage)
32
Adjuvant therapy in gallbladder carcinoma after R0 resection is best supported by
Answer
B. BILCAP trial (capecitabine)
33
Which molecular feature is most commonly associated with anal SCC prognosis?
Answer
A. HPV16 positivity
34
Which GIST subtype is known to be imatinib-resistant?
Answer
D. PDGFRA exon 18 D842V mutation
35
The most important determinant of resectability in hepatocellular carcinoma (HCC) is?
Answer
C. Future liver remnant (FLR) function and volume
36
Which of the following molecular subtypes of colorectal cancer is associated with RIGHT-sided tumors, mucinous histology, and poor response to 5-FU?
Answer
A. Microsatellite instability-high (MSI-H)
37
Which of the following genes is recurrently mutated in pancreatic mucinous cystic neoplasms (MCNs) and may indicate progression to malignancy?
Answer
D. RNF43
38
Which of the following molecular alterations is most strongly linked with Barrett's adenocarcinoma progression?
Answer
A. TP53 mutation
39
In intrahepatic cholangiocarcinoma, which factor most strongly predicts long-term survival after resection?
Answer
C. Lymph node metastasis
40
Which of the following statements about the PREOPANC trial is TRUE?
Answer
B. Neoadjuvant chemoradiotherapy improved 5-year overall survival compared with upfront surgery for resectable + borderline resectable disease
41
Which of the following best describes the primary goal of oxygen therapy?
Answer
B. To correct tissue hypoxia
42
Which oxygen delivery device provides the most precise ?
Answer
C. Venturi mask
43
Which of the following best deļ¬nes tidal volume (VT) in mechanical ventilation?
Answer
C. Volume of gas delivered during a single breath
44
In volume-controlled ventilation, which parameter is set by the clinician and remains constant?
Answer
A. Tidal volume
45
Which mode of ventilation delivers a present pressure for the entire inspiratory time, allowing tidal volume to vary?
Answer
B. Pressure-controlled ventilation (PCV)
46
The main purpose of Positive End-Expiratory Pressure (PEEP) is to :
Answer
B. Prevent alveolar collapse at end-expiration
47
Which ventilatory parameter is the primary determinant of ?
Answer
C. Respiratory rate Ć Tidal volume (Minute ventilation)
48
Plateau pressure (Pplat) is measured by performing which maneuver on the ventilator?
Answer
A. End-inspiratory pause
49
Which statement about auto-PEEP is correct?
Answer
B. It is caused by incomplete exhalation before the next breath
50
In ARDS patients, the recommended tidal volume strategy according to ARDSNet is :
Answer
B. 6-8 ml/kg predicted body weight
51
Which of the following is a disadvantage of pressure support ventilation (PSV)?
Answer
B. Provides ļ¬xed tidal volume regardless of compliance
52
Which ventilatory setting has the greatest impact on oxygenation?
Answer
A. and PEEP
53
A 72-year-old male presents with drowsiness and shallow breathing. ABG shows : ⢠pH : 7.26 ⢠: 62 mmHg ⢠: 26 mmol/L What is the primary acid-base disorder?
Answer
B. Respiratory acidosis
54
A patient with chronic obstructive pulmonary disease (COPD) present for review. His ABG shows : ° pH : 7.38 ° : 58 mmHg ° : 34 mmol/L How do you interpret this ABG?
Answer
C. Compensated respiratory acidosis
55
Which of the following blood components requires irradiation before transfusion to prevent transfusion-associated graft-versus-hots disease (TA-GvHD)?
Answer
C. Granulocyte transfusion
56
A trauma patient receives 10 units of packed red blood cells over 6 hours. He develops hypocalcemia and metabolic alkalosis. Which component of the transfusion is most likely responsible?
Answer
A. Citrate in blood products
57
Which parameter of thromboelastography primarily reļ¬ects the time to initial ļ¬brin formation (coagulation factor activity)?
Answer
A. R-time
58
A Patient's TEG shows prolonged R-time with normal MA. The most likely abnormality is :
Answer
C. Coagulation factor deļ¬ciency
59
Which TEG parameter is most inļ¬uenced by platelet number and function?
Answer
D. Maximum amplitude (MA)
60
Dostarlimab has been recently approved for the treatment of
Answer
C. MSI-H colorectal cancer
61
Informed consent is intended to serve
Answer
C. To educate the patient about the beneļ¬ts and complications of the operation
62
Consent during operations should not include
Answer
A. Consent for organ donation in the event of death
63
Following is true regarding consent for procedures and operations
Answer
D. Signature from patient alone in the consent without anyone else's signature is a valid consent document
64
Following statement is false
Answer
B. Legal heirs are the ļ¬nal decision makers if the patient is a senior citizen for all medical purposes
65
In the event of bowel injury during surgery, which statement is false?
Answer
A. It is not needed to inform the caregivers if the injury is repaired
66
In the event of a partially willing donor for liver transplantation, following statement is false
Answer
C. Doctor can refer the donor to the authorisation committee for consent
67
In the event of an HIV positivity before operation, the doctor can
Answer
D. The patient has to be posted as the last patient in the operation list not mandatorily
68
If the assistant nurse notice that instrument count is not correct even after proper counting
Answer
A. She/he can report through the event reporting portal of the hospital
69
The responsibility of maintaining good ethical practices in a hospital lies with
Answer
C. All the staļ¬ and patients
70
To test the knowledge and skills of the doctor
Answer
C. Patient can ask the doctor direct questions
71
The standardised future liver remnant is calculated by
Answer
C. Future liver remnant divided by total estimated liver volume
72
Temporary occlusion of the hepatic artery
Answer
B. Does not signiļ¬cantly aļ¬ect portal vein ļ¬ow
73
Intra operative air leak test was described to detect
Answer
A. Integrity of colorectal c anastomoses
74
T2 weighted images of pancreas will help to identify
Answer
B. Pseudocyst
75
Contraindication to trans jugular intrahepatic portosystemic shunting
Answer
B. Portal cavernoma
76
One of the following is a treatment option for air embolism during colorectal operations
Answer
D. Trendelenburg position of the operating table
77
The liver frailty index for liver transplantation includes which of the following
Answer
D. Dominant hand grip strength
78
In a patient with oesophageal stenosis, following is not recommended
Answer
C. Abdominal Oesophagostomy
79
Commonest location of a bleeding peptic ulcer is
Answer
A. Posterior wall of duodenum
80
Partial parenteral nutrition is used in
Answer
D. All of the above
81
Which of the following statements regarding Familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP) is true?
Answer
B. FAP aļ¬ects both genders equality, but the expression of the disease may vary according to the genotype and even with patients who share the same mutation
82
Which of the following rare manifestation associated with FAP mandates genetic testing in new borns followed by screening until age of 7?
Answer
A. Hepatoblastoma
83
A 40 year old female was diagnosed to have FAP after a colonoscopy for which she was planned for surgery. Which of the following is a contraindication for Total Proctocolectomy + IPAA in FAP patients except?
Answer
D. Good sphincters
84
Which of the following drug is used as chemoprevention in FAP patients with pouch polyposis as a surgical alternative?
Answer
C. Sulindac
85
A 30 year old female underwent distal pancreatectomy for a cystic lesion in the pancreas. Final HPE report was suggestive of Mucinous cystadenoma of pancreas with ovarian like stroma. The ovarian like stromal cells in Mucinous cystadenoma of pancreas typically stain for the following except?
Answer
C. Beta-HCG
86
Which of the following statements regarding SCN's of pancreas is false?
Answer
B. VHL associated SCN's usually aļ¬ect the body and tail of pancreas
87
What are the predictors of malignancy detectable at imaging in MCN's of pancreas except?
Answer
D. Calciļ¬cation of MPD
88
A 30 year old female presents with a mass lesion in the right lobe of the liver. The patient is diagnosed to have biliary cystadenoma of the liver. Which of the following statements regarding biliary cystadenoma is true?
Answer
A. Increased ALP is a distinctive feature to diļ¬erentiate from simple cysts
89
What level of CEA concentration is used to diļ¬erentiate between biliary cystadenoma with ovarian stroma from non-mucinous cysts?
Answer
D. >600 ng/ml
90
Which of the following shows no immunoreactivity to stroma of biliary cystadenoma on pathological examination except?
Answer
D. CA72-4
91
A 20 year old patient sustained a RTA and was declared brain dead and the patients attenders were apprehensive for organ donation. Which of the following is not a prerequisite criteria for establishing a diagnosis of brain death?
Answer
A. Core temperature >/= 32 degrees celsius
92
Which of the following brain stem reļ¬exes should be present for establishing a diagnosis of brain death excepet?
Answer
D. None of the above
93
Which of the following are contraindications to listing for liver transplantation in deceased donors except?
Answer
A. MELD <18
94
Which of the following statements regarding early complications of liver transplantation is true?
Answer
B. The primary risk factor for PV thrombosis is the need for initial thrombectomy at the time of transplant
95
A 50 year old male underwent LDLT for HCC, on POD 4 patient was diagnosed to have acute graft rejection. Which of the following statements regarding acute graft rejection is false?
Answer
C. Typically has a fulminant and symptomatic presentation
96
Which of the following diseases are at a greater risk of recurrence in patients requiring treatment for acute rejection post LT?
Answer
D. Hepatitis C
97
Which of the following is not a risk factor for Hepatic artery thrombosis (HAT)?
Answer
A. High surgical volume
98
Which of the following statements regarding the energy device THUNDERBEAT is false?
Answer
C. Heat production is more than conventional ultrasonic scissors
99
Which of the following statements regarding electrosurgical unit (ESU) is true except?
Answer
B. It converts direct current with 50-60 Hz to a radiofrequency output of around 500 KHz
100
What are the disadvantages of using an ultrasonic device during a radical distal gastrectomy except?
Answer
A. Faster coagulation when compared to electrocautery
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