| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Surgical Gastroenterology |
|---|---|
| Department | Medical Education |
| Question Paper Code | 087/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 686/2025 |
| Date of Test | 9 May 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Commonly used option for esophaegal replacement if stomach is not available
Answer
C. Colon
2
The best investigation to detect a delayed emptying in the stomach conduit after esophageal replacement is
Answer
A. Nuclear scan for emptying with radio labelled meal
3
Primary modality of treatment for cervical esophageal tumor is
Answer
B. Primary chemoradiation
4
Mucosal injury detected during cardiomyotomy for achalasis is bets managed by
Answer
A. Primary repair of the mucosal defect
5
Free perforations to the thoracic cavity following balloon dilatation for achalasia cardia usually requires
Answer
A. Esophagectomy
6
Early gastric cancer is
Answer
B. Restricted to mucosa and or submucosa
7
Endoscopic ultrasound is commonly used in carcinoma stomach
Answer
B. To assess the depth of tumor in the wall of the stomach
8
The commonly used oral contrast agent to study carcinoma stomach in high resolution computed tomography is
Answer
C. Water
9
Following lumphnode group is not included in the radical D2 lymphadenectomy in carcinoma proximal stomach
Answer
D. Superior mesenteric artery lymphnodes
10
American Joint Committee on Cancer (AJCC) staging 7th edition classify N stage in carcinoma stomach
Answer
C. Based on number of positive lymphnodes
11
Management of a duodenal stump blow out detected on the ļ¬fth day of operation usually does not include
Answer
A. Immediate re-exploration and closure
12
Investigations available to study delayed gastric emptying include
Answer
D. All of the above
13
The radioisotope commonly used to study gastric emptying along with a standard solid meal is
Answer
A. Technetium 99 m
14
The commonest vessel associate with a peptic ulcer bleed is
Answer
B. Gastroduodenal artery
15
Following is not a common association of chronic duodenal ulcer
Answer
D. Carcinoma stomach
16
Ampullectomy is indicated in
Answer
C. Papillary type ampullary carcinoma
17
Endoscopic retrograde cholangiography is performed using
Answer
A. Side viewing endoscope
18
Endoscopic choledochoduodenostomy is usually performed for
Answer
A. Pre-operative biliary drainage
19
Following is the deļ¬nite step during performance of endoscopic retrograde cholangiography
Answer
C. Guidewire insertion
20
Percutaneous transhepatic cholangiography is commonly indicated in
Answer
D. All of the above
21
Which feature distinguishes Type Ill achalasia from distal esophageal spasm?
Answer
B. Elevated IRP
22
Which condition has worst response to pneumatic dilation?
Answer
C. Type III achalasia
23
Which HRM feature deļ¬nes premature contraction?
Answer
A. DL < 4.5 sec
24
Which condition shows absence of RAIR?
Answer
D. Hirschsprung disease
25
Which nerve supplies the external anal sphincter?
Answer
B. Pudendal nerve
26
Most common complication after Whipple resection is:
Answer
C. Delayed gastric emptying
27
Best drug for MSI high pancreatic tumour is:
Answer
B. Pembrolizumab
28
Targeting Hedgehog pathway in pancreatic cancer is aimed to:
Answer
B. Reduce stromal barrier
29
Chemotherapy in CROSS Regimen includes:
Answer
D. Carboplatin + Paclitaxel
30
PD-L1 Expression in oesophageal cancer predicts response to:
Answer
C. Immunotherapy
31
Mechanism of action of Atezolizumab is
Answer
B. PD-L1 inhibitor
32
Patient with PSC and early hilar cholangiocarcinoma, the best option is:
Answer
D. Neoadjuvant therapy + Transplant
33
A lesion shows ā¢ Arterial enhancement, ā¢ No washout ā¢ Capsule present LI-RADS category is?
Answer
C. LR-4
34
A patient with diļ¬use GB wall thickening, intramural nodules, and gallstones. Most likely diagnosis is?
Answer
D. Xanthogranulomatous cholecystitis
35
A positive CRM in rectal cancer is deļ¬ned as:
Answer
D. Tumour within 1 mm
36
Which of the following predicts poor prognosis in colorectal cancer?
Answer
A. KRAS mutation
37
BRAF V600E mutated colorectal cancer is associated with:
Answer
C. Poor prognosis
38
DOG1 positivity is seen in:
Answer
B. GIST
39
Peptide receptor radionuclide therapy (PRRT) uses:
Answer
A. Lutetium-177
40
A gastric GIST with PDGFRA D842V mutation presents with metastatic disease. Best treatment is?
Answer
C. Avapritinib
41
A 60-year-old patient, post-operative day 3, after major hepatectomy develops jaundice, coagulopathy, and encephalopathy. Which of the following is diagnostic for post hepatectomy liver failure?
Answer
A. Increasing Bilirubin and INR
42
A 45-year-old male with alcohol-induced pancreatitis presents with hypotension, tachypnea, and oliguria. Most important early management includes:
Answer
B. Moderately aggressive IV ļ¬uids
43
All of following are causes of acute liver failure except:
Answer
D. Hepatitis C
44
Which of the following are prognostic factors in fulminant hepatic failure except?
Answer
D. Body surface area
45
Which of the following statements regarding Central Venous Pressure (CVP) is/are correct?
Answer
C. Dynamic indices are superior to CVP for guiding ļ¬uids
46
Low tidal volume ventilation (typically 4-8 ml/kg predicted body weight) in ARDS primarily reduces: -
Answer
B. Volutrauma
47
A patient with septic shock shows high cardiac output and low SVR. This is:
Answer
C. Distributive shock
48
Which statements about PEEP is incorrect?
Answer
B. Always improves cardiac output
49
Which modality is preferred for Renal Replacement Therapy in hemodynamically unstable ICU patients?
Answer
C. Continuous renal replacement therapy
50
Oxygen delivery (DO2) depends on:
Answer
D. All of the above
51
Early enteral nutrition is preferred because:
Answer
D. All of the above
52
Preferred sedative for mechanically ventilated patients:
Answer
B. Propofol
53
Rapid correction of hyponatremia may cause: -
Answer
B. Osmotic demyelination syndrome
54
Best predictor of weaning success:
Answer
B. RSBI (Rapid shallow breathing index)
55
What is the Interpretation of the following ABG value: pH 7.20, PaCO2 50, HCO3- 18?
Answer
B. Mixed metabolic + respiratory acidosis
56
Regarding Low Maximum Amplitude (MA), Which of the following are correct?
Answer
D. All of the above
57
Which statements are correct?
Answer
D. All are correct
58
Patient develops high fever and hypotension during platelet transfusion. Most likely cause?
Answer
B. Bacterial contamination
59
Severe thrombocytopenia occurs 7 days after transfusion. What is the Diagnosis amongst the following?
Answer
B. Post-transfusion purpura
60
Regarding Heparin Eļ¬ect and Thromboelastography, Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Answer
D. Heparin reduces MA
61
Best initial modality of imaging in the evaluation of patients with suspected chronic pancreatitis is
Answer
B. CECT Abdomen
62
A 29-year old male presents with repeated episodes of pain -abdomen over the last 2 years. He is a smoker and consumes alcohol regularly for the past 10 years. He is evaluated and diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis. All are true about conservative management except:
Answer
D. Intravenous medications are preferred ļ¬rst to ensure compliance followed by oral medications
63
A 45-year old male presents with recurrent episodes of severe epigastric pain radiating to back. He is diagnosed with chronic pancreatitis with inļ¬ammatory head mass. All are acceptable procedures for treatment except
Answer
A. Partington-Rochelle procedure
64
Indicators of poor outcome in chronic pancreatitis include all except:
Answer
D. Proximal stenosis of pancreatic duct
65
Who is not at a high risk for gallstone formation?
Answer
B. A 60-year old male with hepatocellular carcinoma on Nivolumab therapy
66
You are performing a cholecystectomy on a 35-year old lady with symptomatic cholelithiasis. The Calots triangle appears frozen. There has been no progress despite 2 hours of slow and meticulous dissection. All are acceptable recourses except:
Answer
A. Fundus ļ¬rst approach
67
A 45-year old lady presents with history of recurrent episodes of right upper quadrant pain at night few hours after dinner for the past 2 months. Pain was moderately severe in intensity and required a visit to a nearby clinic and resolved in 1-2 hours with medical management. She is currently pain free. Ultrasound shows distended gall bladder with 2 calculi sized 8mm and 9 mm and normal wall thickness. CBD is normal. Intrahepatic biliary radicles are normal. Her LFT is as follows: T. Bilirubin 0.6 mg/dL, AST 26 IU/L, ALT 19 IU/L, ALP 110 IU/L, GGT 25 IU/L, Albumin 3.9g/ dL. What is the next best option for her management?
Answer
C. Laparoscopic cholecystectomy
68
Features of severe ulcerative colitis according to True love and Wittās criteria are all except:
Answer
B. Stool frequency > 3 times
69
A 35-year-old male is diagnosed presents with pain abdomen associated with intermittent episodes of vomiting. He is evaluated extensively and diagnosed with Crohnsās disease and labelled A2L1B2. This indicates:
Answer
A. Ileal Crohns with stricturing disease without perianal involvement
70
Maneuvers for increasing reach of the ileal J pouch are all except:
Answer
C. Convert to W pouch
71
Core components of informed consent include:
Answer
B. Mental Competence, full disclosure of information, Understanding, Voluntariness
72
A 35-year-old male diagnosed with Gonorrhoea decides to apply for swimming classes. He seeks help from a physician to sign a form. He refuses. A day later the doctor sees the man about to enter a pool and informs the authorities. The patient sues him for breaching his conļ¬dentiality. Which is true?
Answer
D. The case should be dismissed as he acted in public interest
73
A doctor is treating a patient for diabetes on insulin. The patient is incriminated in a murder case and the doctor is called as a witness in the court. He is questioned regarding the patients illness and access to insulin. I. In all cases, the doctor should appeal to the Judge before disclosing a professional secret. II. If the Court does not accept this plea, he may request the Court that he may be allowed to give the answer in writing so that the public may not know. III. If this is denied by the Court. the doctor has to answer the questions about the patientās conļ¬dential matters. IV. He should disclose all information to the court, irrespective whether it is asked or not. True are:
Answer
A. I, II, III
74
Formal relationship between patient and doctor refers to:
Answer
B. The doctor is not under obligation to provide any information about his report to the patient
75
An unidentiļ¬ed patient is brought to the emergency department unconscious following a car accident with a severe head injury and requires immediate emergency surgery. Which of the following is an exception that allows the physician to treat without formal informed consent in this situation?
Answer
C. Emergency Exception
76
āTherapeutic privilegeā is an exception to informed consent that allows a physician to withhold information, but it is highly limited. When is it generally acceptable?
Answer
C. When disclosing information poses a severe and immediate threat to the patientās psychological well-being
77
A class is on a camp to a remote area when a child develops acute pain abdomen. The child is taken to a hospital and diagnosed with acute appendicitis. Which is best course of action?
Answer
C. The class teacher should give consent by loco parentis
78
A patient asks for a copy of their medical records. According to privacy regulations, the clinic must: -
Answer
D. Provide the records, as it is the patientās right
79
Which of these is not unethical behaviour according to Indian Medical Council Regulations 2002?
Answer
B. Formal announcement in press on change of type of practice
80
False about professional misconduct is:
Answer
B. Training and issuing certiļ¬cates of eļ¬ciency to midwives or technical assistants may construe misconduct
81
A 18 year female patient was diagnosed to have an autosomal dominant disorder with Familial adenomatous polyposis and underwent prophylactic colectomy. Which of the following extra intestinal manifestations is not likely to be associated?
Answer
A. Hemangioblastoma
82
A 16-year-old-male with a conļ¬rmed APC mutation undergoes genetic counselling. His colonoscopy reveals >1000 adenomatous polyps carpeting the colon with dense rectal involvement. Which of the following is the MOST appropriate timing of prophylactic colectomy?
Answer
C. Within 3 months
83
28-year-old woman with FAP has 600 colonic adenomas and 10 rectal adenomas. She is reliable for follow-up. Family history is signiļ¬cant for aggressive desmoid tumors. What is the best surgical option?
Answer
B. TAC-IRA
84
32-year-old woman with FAP has more than 1000 colonic adenomas and 30 rectal adenomas with carpeted adenomas at anal transition zone(ATZ) and lower rectum. She is reliable for follow-up and planned for surgery. What is the best -surgical option?
Answer
C. Mucosectomy of ATZ and TPC + IPAA
85
Which of the following statements regarding IPMN subtypes is correct?
Answer
C. Pancreatobiliary type is associated with the highest rates of invasive carcinoma
86
A 48-year-old woman has a 4 cm cystic lesion in the pancreatic tail. CT shows a thick-walled cyst with peripheral calciļ¬cation. MRI shows hyperintensity on T2. Which of the following imaging features most strongly predicts malignant potential in this lesion?
Answer
C. Presence of mural nodule
87
A 58-year-old patient is diagnosed with a 5 cm serous cystic neoplasm (SCN) of the pancreas. He is asymptomatic with no evidence of ductal or vascular compression. What is the most appropriate management?
Answer
C. Continue surveillance with periodic imaging
88
Which of the following best explains the predilection of hepatic cystadenomas for segment IV/left liver?
Answer
C. Migration of ectopic ovarian cells during embryogenesis near dorsocranial liver
89
Which of the following clinical scenarios is MOST characteristic of biliary communication in cystadenoma?
Answer
B. Intermittent jaundice due to migration of mucin/tumor embolus
90
A patient undergoes fenestration (unrooļ¬ng) for a presumed simple hepatic cyst, later diagnosed as cystadenoma. What is the most likely outcome?
Answer
C. Recurrence rate upto 82%
91
Which of the following is not a contraindication for liver transplantation?
Answer
Question Cancelled
92
HCC recurrence after liver transplant are decreased by which of following drugs?
Answer
B. mTOR inhibitors
93
Mr. X will be undergoing liver transplantation in few days. His weight is 64 kg. what should be minimum weight of graft that required for transplantation?
Answer
A. 500 g
94
Small size graft syndrome is prevented by all of the followings except
Answer
D. Systemic ligation of retroperitoneal collaterals
95
50 year old female who is a known case of IHD complained of retrosternal chest pain and was taken to emergency department where she collapsed, attempts at resuscitationwere unsuccessful. to which Maastricht class does she belong to?
Answer
B. CLASS 2
96
All of the following reļ¬exes need to be absent to conļ¬rm brain stem death except:
Answer
B. Conjunctival reļ¬ex
97
What is meaning of 0, 1 and 2 mismatch?
Answer
C. Complete matched at HLA-A loci, mismatched at one HLA-B loci and mismatched at both HLA- DR loci
98
Ligasure seals vessels upto -
Answer
B. 7 mm
99
Which of the following is not a feature of cutting current?
Answer
C. Tissue heating is slow resulting in dehydration and protein denaturation
100
Interrupted wave form of current is used in -
Answer
A. Coagulating current
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