| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Surgical Oncology - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 069/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 568/2024 |
| Date of Test | 26 June 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
All the statements regarding global burden of disease and trends in stomach cancer are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
C. The lowest incidence and mortality rates are found in Eastern Asia, with China and Japan
2
Regarding Electronic Nicotine Delivery Systems (ENDS) TRUE statement is
Answer
D. ENDS are not approved as smoking cessation devices by the FDA
3
Obesity and cancer all statements are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
B. Risk of malignancy associated with obesity is strongest in breast cancer
4
The following are results categories of gene testing EXCEPT
Answer
C. Informative Negative
5
True statement about tumour markers
Answer
D. Elevation in hCG can occur with cannabis exposure
6
Anticancer vaccine the TRUE statment is
Answer
C. Gardasil has demonstrated eļ¬cacy for prevention of cancers of the anus, vagina and vulva
7
All statements regarding HIV infection and anal malignancies are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. HIV-positive patients with anal cancer tended to develop late recurrences than HIV-negative patients
8
Regarding non inferiority trials all are TRUE EXCEPT?
Answer
B. It is possible to establish that the two treatments are completely equivalent
9
TRUE about Von Recklinghausen's disease (NF1)
Answer
D. NF1 is associated with the development of NETs in the region of the duodenum and ampulla of Vater
10
Familial adenomatosis polyposis (FAP) syndromes i. FAP is an autosomal dominant disorder. ii. 90% of patients with FAP have small bowel polyps. iii. Patients with FAP have upto 80% lifetime colorectal cancer. iv. FAP patients have upto 30% to 40% lifetime risk of developing small bowel adenocarcinoma.
Answer
B. i, ii correct
11
Which of the following is a tumour suppressor gene in colorectal cancer mutation?
Answer
D. TP 53
12
Tissue of origin test/Molecular tumour proļ¬le testing by CANCER TYPE ID all are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. This techniques cannot provide additional information when IHC fails to provide a diagnosis
13
Global cancer incidence and mortality with regard to female breast cancer are TRUE EXCEPT
Answer
D. Mortality rate is higher in higher HDI countries (15 per 100000)
14
In the deļ¬nition of smoking in cancer patients into diļ¬erent categories all are true EXCEPT?
Answer
D. Current smoking is typically deļ¬ned as actively smoking ļ¬ve or more cigarettes per day every day or some days
15
All are TRUE except in microsatellite instability (MSI) pathway in colorectal cancer
Answer
D. MSI-H CRCs are more likely to have a smaller primary at the time of diagnosis but are more likely to be node positive
16
Which of the following is wrong?
Answer
C. NGS panels provide greater breadth of coverage than whole exome sequencing (WES) and can thus analyze signaling pathways
17
In Radiotherapy, use of more than one fraction per day separated by more than 6 hours with a dose per fraction that is less than standard is known as
Answer
B. Hyperfractionation
18
Which of the following is true?
Answer
D. Atezolizumab is a PD L1 checkpoint inhibitor useful against locally advanced urothelial caricoma
19
Cairo-Bishop deļ¬nition of tumor lysis syndrome includes the decrease in levels of
Answer
D. Calcium
20
MNOP Algorithm is used in
Answer
A. Malignant Spinal Cord Compression
21
Which of the following is not an Essential features of SIADH (Syndrome of Inappropriate Secretion of Antidiuretic Hormone)?
Answer
C. Clinical hypovolemia
22
According to the common Terminology Criteria for Adverse Events version 5.0, neutropenia is deļ¬ned by a granulocyte count
Answer
A. < 1500/Ī¼L
23
Regarding multiple myeloma (MM) which of the following is false?
Answer
D. Current diagnostic criteria allow CT but does not allow PET CT for bone lesions
24
Select the false statement
Answer
B. Annual MR mammogram is opted most often if the lifetime risk of breast cancer estimated by the predictive models is 10-15%
25
One of the following is a syndrome with adenomatous polyp and rest are syndromes with Harmatomatous Polyps. Identify the adenomatous polyps syndrome
Answer
A. Muir-Torre syndrome
26
Criteria for identifying At-risk individuals for Mismatch Repair Deļ¬ciency (High Microsatellite Instability)
Answer
D. All the above
27
Which is wrongly matched
Answer
D. None of the above
28
Find the correct pair
Answer
C. CK 7 - / CK 20 + colon
29
Regarding PCI (Peritoneal Carcinomatosis Index) true is
Answer
D. The PCI is a prognostic indicator on survival even if CRS is complete
30
Which of the following is a PARP inhibitor?
Answer
D. All the above
31
Which of the following statements regarding carcinoma of the stomach is WRONG?
Answer
B. Station 10 lymph nodes should be removed in tumours involving the fundus of the stomach
32
Which of the following are risk factors for development of Esophageal Adenocarcinoma? i. Gastroesophageal reļ¬ux disease ii. Low BMI iii. Barretts esophagus iv. H. Pylori infection
Answer
A. i and iii are correct
33
Which of the following statements is WRONG in a case malignant biliary obstruction and bacteribilia?
Answer
D. The ability of the Kupļ¬er cells to clear bacteria and endotoxin from the circulation is enhanced in obstructive jaundice
34
Which among the following statements pertaining to post pancreatectomy complications is CORRECT?
Answer
C. Pancreatic ļ¬stula is deļ¬ned as "drain output of any measurable volume of ļ¬uid with an amylase level >3 times the upper limit of institutional normal serum amylase activity"
35
Which among the following statements regarding rectal cancer is CORRECT?
Answer
C. Results of the OPERA trial shows that Boost radiotherapy with contact radiation can oļ¬er more than 95% organ preservation in rectal tumours less than 3 cm in size
36
A 44-year-old gentleman who has been an alcoholic for more than 10 years, presents with multifocal HCC. His performance status is good and his CHILD score is A. His imaging shows three lesions suggestive of HCC conļ¬ned to right lobe of liver and the size of the largest nodule is 2.8 cm. The best treatment option from amongst the ones given below is
Answer
A. Liver transplant
37
Which among the following statement regarding post gastrectomy dumping is WRONG?
Answer
C. Billroth II has a lower rate of dumping than Roux-en-YGJ
38
Which among the following statements regarding Familial Adenomatous Polyposis (FAp) is WRONG?
Answer
B. The most eļ¬ective way of preventing cancer in FAP is annual screening and medication with erlotinib or sulindac
39
Which among the following statement regarding GIST is WRONG?
Answer
C. The NIH risk stratiļ¬cation criteria for GIST includes size, site, mitosis and tumour rupture
40
Which among the following statement regarding gallbladder (GB) malignancy is WRONG?
Answer
B. Presence of four or more nodes would upstage a GB adeno carcinoma to stage III
41
The internal iliac artery divides into anterior and posterior divisions at the level of
Answer
B. Sacroiliac joint
42
Which of the following is NOT a component of the Bethesda criteria for Lynch syndrome testing?
Answer
C. Three or more adenomatour polyps
43
Bevacizumab is monoclonal antibody the targets which molecule?
Answer
D. VEGF-A
44
The treatment of choice for symptomatic lichen sclerosus is
Answer
C. Topical clobetasol
45
Recommended age of risk-reducing salpingo-oophorectomy (RRSO) in BRCA1 carriers is
Answer
B. 35-40 years
46
Minimal deviation adenocarinoma of the cervix is also known as
Answer
B. Adenoma malignum
47
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for gestational trophoblastic disease?
Answer
C. Multiparity
48
Read the following statements regarding cutaneous malignant melanoma i. Completion Lymph node dissection must be performed routinely in patients with positive regional nodes detected on Sentinel Lymph Node Biopsy ii. Neoadjuvant immunotherapy is superior to adjuvant immunotherapy in node postive malignant melanoma iii. Pure desmosplastic melanoma has more Sentinel lymph node biopsy positivity than conventional malignant melanoma iv. False negative rates of Sentinel lymph node biopsy are upto 20% Which of the statement are false?
Answer
B. i and iii
49
Which of the following facts regarding melanoma is false?
Answer
A. Head and neck area is the most common site of melanoma in men
50
Read the following statements regarding Basal Cell Carcinoma (BCC) i. BCC is the most common human malignancy. ii. Fibroepithelioma of Pinkus is an aggressive form of BCC iii. Superļ¬cial variant is the most common variant of BCC iv. BCC can occur in sun protected areas of the body Which of the theses statements are false?
Answer
C. ii and iii
51
Read the statements regarding sarcoma and pick out the false statement
Answer
A. Sarcoma with complex karyotypes occur in younger age group compared to sarcomas with simple karyotypes
52
Match the following and choose the correct option i. Bednar Tumour A. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumour with Rhabdomyosarcomatous elements ii. Doege potter syndrome B. Dematoļ¬broscarcoma protuberans with melanin iii. Triton tumour C. Ewings sarcoma iv. Askins tumour D. Solitary ļ¬brous tumour
Answer
D. i-B, ii-D, iii-A, iv-C
53
Read the following two statements i. Local recurrence is higher in patients undergoing limb salvage surgery for extremity sarcoma compared to patients undergoing amputation. ii. Limb salvage surgery is the most preferred surgical option for extremity soft tissue sarcoma Choose the correct option
Answer
A. Statement i and ii are correct
54
Regarding Ewing's Sarcoma which statement is false?
Answer
B. In tumours with more than 90% necrosis, bland scar at the margins is an indication for adjuvant Radiotherapy
55
Which of the following statements is true?
Answer
C. Spine is the most common site of bone metastasis
56
Most common malignancy involving the urinary system
Answer
A. Bladder cancer
57
The most common presenting symptom of bladder cancer is
Answer
C. Painless hematuria
58
Paraneoplastic symptoms in renal cell carcinoma can be all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Doege-Potter syndrome
59
Tumor 7 cm in greatest dimension, limited to the kidney TNM staging AJCC UICC 8th edition, is
Answer
A. T1
60
False regarding tumour marker of Testicular cancer
Answer
B. AFP is elevated in pure seminomas
61
Risk of penile cancer with all EXCEPT
Answer
C. Sexual orientation
62
Most common type of prostate malignancy
Answer
B. Adenocarcinoma
63
In the grade group system, Grade group 1, is
Answer
C. Gleason score ā¤ 6
64
Classic triad of symptoms in patients with a pheochromocytoma consists of
Answer
D. Episodic headache, sweating and tachycardia
65
Primary urethral carcinomas
Answer
D. HPV 16 has been implicated in the development of both male and female urethral cancers
66
What is the most common site of metastasis for Wilm's tumor?
Answer
D. Lungs
67
The most common site of metastasis for uveal melanoma is
Answer
B. Liver
68
Which of the following is the most common primary intraocular malignancy in adults?
Answer
B. Uveal melanoma
69
Which histological subtype of thymoma is characterized by ovoid or fusiform epithelial cells with a paucity of lymphocytes?
Answer
A. Type A
70
According to the International Association for the Study of Lung Cancer (IASLC) lymph node mapping system, station 9 is
Answer
D. Pulmonary ligament
71
What is the standard ļ¬rst-line chemotherapy regimen for metastatic pleural mesothelioma?
Answer
D. Cisplatin and permetrexed
72
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding mediastinal germ cell tumors?
Answer
B. Benign teratoma is the most common mediastinal germ cell tumor
73
Which of the following is the standard ļ¬rst-line chemotherapy regimen for extensive-stage small cell lung cancer?
Answer
A. Cisplatin and etoposide
74
Which of the following is a common paraneoplastic syndrome associated with small cell lung cancer?
Answer
B. Syndrome of inappropriate antidiuretic hormone secretion (SIADH)
75
All are true about pulmonary carcinoid excpt
Answer
C. Diļ¬use idioplathic pulmonary neuroendocrine cell hyperplasia (DIPNECH) is commonly seen in men
76
The molecular diagnosis of WHO grade 4 glioblastoma can be made by the presence of
Answer
D. All of the above
77
The cordlike rows of physaliferous cells with multiple round, clear cytoplasmic vacuoles is characteristic feature of
Answer
B. chordoma
78
Brain metastases are found most frequently in
Answer
B. Cerebral hemisphere
79
The most common location of malignant spinal cord compression is
Answer
A. Thoracic spine
80
Neuroblastoma most commonly originates from which of the following sites
Answer
B. Adrenal medulla
81
The latest changes in the TNM classiļ¬cation for oral tongue, cancer according to ajcc 8th edition includes all except
Answer
D. T4a include more than four centimeters in its greatest diameter and more than one centimeter in its depth
82
According to the 8th edition of the AJCC Cancer Staging Manual, which of the following best describes a T4b classiļ¬cation for oral tongue cancer?
Answer
C. Tumor invades masticator space, pterygoid plate or skull base, and/or encases the internal carotid artery
83
As per AJCC 8th Edition, clinical N3b stage gets converted to pathological N2a after neck dissection if
Answer
A. The ECS is in only one node and it is less than 3 cm
84
Which among the following is the most useful ļ¬nding elicited by B mode ultrasonography for thyroid nodules?
Answer
C. Characterization of the thyroid nodules and predication of malignancy
85
As per latest ASCO guidelines (2023), all of the following are essential preoperative diagnostic tests to evaluate a metastatic neck node of unknown origin except
Answer
B. Open biopsy of the node
86
The best imaging investigation for a suspected parathyroid adenoma is
Answer
A. Technetium-99 m Sestamibi Scan (Sestamibi Parathryoid Scintigraphy)
87
Which of the following wide excision margins would be described as positive in oncologic surgery?
Answer
D. Less than 1 mm
88
Which of the following oral precancerous conditions carries the highest risk of malignant transformation?
Answer
B. Erythroplakia
89
Which of the following is not considered a conservation surgical procedure for early glottic cancer?
Answer
C. Near total laryngectomy
90
OAR for Radiotherapy in head and neck cancers include all of the following except
Answer
D. Soft palate
91
Breast cancer index
Answer
A. Gene expression assay for consideration of extending adjvant therapy
92
BIRADS 4b lesions have risk/likely hood of malignancy of _________%
Answer
C. 10-50%
93
As per current AJCC staging system, identify the true statement about cN1mi
Answer
C. Associated with SLNB
94
After Surgical excision of breast lump margin of 2 mm is not required in which of this condition
Answer
B. Invasive Breast Cancer with DCIS
95
True about Phylloides tumour
Answer
D. Axillary nodal metastasis rate is < 5%
96
Adjuvant therapy speciļ¬cally in BRCA1 and 2 positive breast cancer
Answer
A. Olaparib
97
Procedure used for surgically addressing post chemotherapy axilla as to have lesser postoperative morbidity is
Answer
A. TAD
98
Which is not an indication for neodjuvant chemotherapy in breast cancer
Answer
C. Luminal A tumour of 3 cm size and with one mobile axillary node
99
A patient with tumour size 0.8 cm lesion in right breast with single mobile axillary node in level 3 clinical TNM stage is as follows
Answer
C. T1b N3
100
Criteria for selecting potential candidates for APBI are all except
Answer
D. Multicentric disease
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