| Post Name | Assistant Professor in Transfusion Medicine (Blood Bank) - Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Department | KERALA HIGHER SECONDARY EDUCATION Category No : 729/2021 |
| Question Paper Code | 041/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 139/2022 |
| Date of Test | 26 May 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Puriļ¬cation of Albumin with cold ethanol precipitation process was ļ¬rst introduced in 1940 by
Answer
A. Edwin J. Cohn
2
According to the GSR 166(E) dated 11-03-2020 the deferral period for a donor suļ¬ered from Zika virus infection is
Answer
C. 4 months
3
Shelf Life of RBC in whole Human Blood collected in the anticoagulant CPD whenstored at 1-6 degree celsius is
Answer
B. 21 days
4
Plateletpheresis donor can be accepted for double unit apheresis platelets, if the body weight is more than 60 kg and those who are not ļ¬rst-time apheresis donors, having a platelet count of at least
Answer
B. 2.5 lakhs/Ī¼l
5
Alpha Granules of platelet contains
Answer
C. PDGF
6
Shift to right of the Hemoglobin-Oxygen dissociation curve occurs when there is
Answer
A. Decrease in pH
7
Storage lesions of RBC include all except
Answer
C. Decreased plasma hemoglobin
8
Thawed cryoprecipitate AHF is kept at temperature of
Answer
C. 20-24Ā°C
9
Leubering Rapaport Shunt pathway is important to RBC function as it permits accumulation of
Answer
B. 2,3 DPG
10
DNA ļ¬ngerprinting is used in
Answer
D. All of the above
11
Human Urea Transporter is linked to a Blood Group system
Answer
B. Kidd
12
Advantages of pre storage leucoreduction : it reduces the chance of all except
Answer
D. TA-GVHD
13
Autosomal Dominant Macrothrombocytopenia syndrome associated with MYH19 gene mutation is
Answer
A. May-Hegglin Anomaly
14
Culture system which detects bacteria by detecting a change in the levels associated with bacterial growth, during continuous monitoring of platelet sample containing bottles
Answer
B. BacT/ALERT
15
Fc Portion of IgG immunoglobulin is involved in
Answer
B. Cytokine regulation
16
The required storage temperature for frozen RBC using 20% weight per volume, low glycerol method is
Answer
A. At or below ā120 degree celcius
17
Features of Natural Killer Cells are
Answer
C. Have CD56 and CD16 as markers
18
Viral inactivation method where only enveloped viruses are destroyed by disrupting lipid membrane
Answer
B. Solvent/detergent treatment
19
Transgenic goat's milk is used in the production of
Answer
D. Antithrombin III
20
What is true about Bone Marrow Transplantation ?
Answer
B. The maximum volume collected from the donor should not be more than 15-20 ml/kg body weight of the donor
21
Hemoglobin resulting from a mutation where lysine is substituted for glutamate in the sixth position of the Ī²-globin chain
Answer
C. Hemoglobin C
22
Shipment of frozen HSC product is made in a secondary container to prevent leakage and contamination. The temperature is continuously monitored and maintained at or below
Answer
D. minus 150ĀŗC
23
Fever of a non-infectious origin, which develops when white cell count increases HSC post transplant. Classical features include fever >38.3Āŗ C, skin rash, non cardiogenic pulmonary edema or hypoxia, or a sudden increase in CRP values >20mg/dL. This is known as
Answer
C. Engraftment syndrome
24
Which of the following is FDA approved CAR-T cells ?
Answer
A. Tisagenlecleucel (Kymriah)
25
X linked recessive pattern of inheritance is seen in
Answer
D. Both 2 and 3
26
1-4 Butane Diol Wax
Answer
C. is used to bring down the temperature of collected blood to 20ĀŗC
27
Minimum haematocrit of PRBC in SAGM should be
Answer
C. 50-60%
28
Red cells washed in a closed system have an expiry time of
Answer
B. 14 days
29
Most commonly used cryopreservation method by Glycerol is
Answer
C. High concentration glycerol with slow freezing
30
Method of pathogen inactivation that does not aļ¬ect coagulation and anti thrombotic factors
Answer
Question Cancelled
31
In the risk stratiļ¬cation for emerging viral infections, chikungunya is classiļ¬ed under
Answer
B. Orange
32
The titre of which antibody is known to wean oļ¬ in the serum of as immunised person
Answer
A. Anti kidd
33
Pick out the false statement :
Answer
A. Lw antigen is a low frequency antigen
34
Severity of anaemia in HDFN caused by which blood group, antibodies is much more pronounced than other blood group antibodies
Answer
C. Anti Kell
35
Deļ¬nition of massive transfusion and its indications are all except
Answer
D. Blood loss at the rate 150 ml per hour or more
36
Pick out the false statement :
Answer
C. Clinical signs and symptoms of leucocytosis develop in more than 10% of ALL patients
37
All immunoadsorption columns can be used in a patient on ACE 1 inhibitor (Angiotensin Converting Enzyme) except
Answer
D. Tryptophan
38
Pick out the wrong statement regarding West Nile Virus :
Answer
C. Around 38% of infected individuals die succumb to disease
39
Vertical transmission is most frequent in
Answer
C. CMV
40
The most common immune cause of platelet refractoriness is
Answer
D. Antibodies to class I HLA antigens
41
Investigation that can aid in the diagnosis of Transfusion Associated Circulatory Overload (TACO)
Answer
A. Brain natieuretic peptide
42
Protein A capture antibodies by binding to
Answer
D. Fc portion of immunoglobulin
43
The component of choice for low birthweight infant with Hb 7g/dl, Mother is anti CMV negative
Answer
B. RBCs from a donor who is anti CMV negative
44
Which clotting factor deļ¬ciency is treated by Prothrombin Complex Concentrates ?
Answer
B. Factor IX deļ¬ciency
45
All are agents for immunoadsorption except
Answer
D. Polyethylene glycol
46
Elutriation refers to
Answer
C. Method of separation of cell populations based on two physical characteristics
47
Addition of which agent helps in reducing the percentage of DMSO during cryopreservation ?
Answer
B. Hydroxyl ethyl starch
48
Gilcher's rule of 5 is used in
Answer
D. Calculation of total blood volume
49
Hyperleucocytosis is referred to as circulating white cells or leukemic blast cells
Answer
A. More than /L
50
The agent given to an apheresis donor to increase the number of circulating granulocytes
Answer
C. G-CSF
51
Side eļ¬ects of hemoglobin-based blood substitutes include all except
Answer
D. Thrombocytopenia
52
Oxygen dissociation curve of perļ¬uorocarbons with is
Answer
A. Linear
53
Which of the following is a feature of stem cells collected from peripheral blood ?
Answer
B. Hematopoietic recovery is faster compared to bone marrow stem cells
54
Which is not a cause of immune thrombocytopenia ?
Answer
C. Microangiopathic hemolytic anaemia
55
Which of the following can be seen in sickle cell anaemia ?
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
56
Which of the following is not correct ?
Answer
B. Hemoglobin A2 level can be increased in alpha thalassemia
57
Hemophilia B is caused by deļ¬ciency of
Answer
B. Factor 9
58
Which of the following statement is correct ?
Answer
B. TYPE 1 von Willebrand disease is a mild disease
59
Bone marrow failure syndrome commonly associated with symptoms of skin pigmentation, nail dystrophy and leucoplakia is
Answer
A. Dyskeratosis congenita
60
Which of the following is not correct in umbilical cord stem cell collection ?
Answer
C. About 300 ml blood is collected
61
Which of these conditions commonly results in increased crystallisation of hemoglobin in RBC ?
Answer
D. Hemoglobin C
62
Which of the complications of sickle cell anaemia is an accepted indication for transfusion ?
Answer
C. Acute hepatic sequestration
63
Prothrombin complex concentrate does not contain
Answer
D. Factor XII
64
Novoseven (factor VIIa) can be used in the treatment of
Answer
D. All of the above
65
Donor in stem cell transplantation is O positive. Recipient is AB positive. Which blood group packed RBC/Plasma should recipient receive in the post-transplant period ?
Answer
A. O group PRBC, AB group plasma
66
Which of the following agent is used as alternative to platelet transfusion and in platelet dysfunction ?
Answer
B. Desmopressin
67
Hepcidin level is usually increased in
Answer
B. Anaemia of chronic disease
68
Which of the following statements are correct ? i. Irradiation decreases storage life of platelets. ii. Irradiation damages DNA of T cells. iii. Cryoprecipitate does not need irradiation. iv. Platelets processed with pathogen reduction techniques need no irradiation.
Answer
B. ii, iii, iv are correct i is wrong
69
Which of the following is not correct ?
Answer
A. Thrombopoetin is produced by megakaryocytes
70
Which of the following is characteristics of paroxysmal cold hemoglobinurea ?
Answer
C. Antibody speciļ¬city against P antigen
71
Which of the following statement about cryopreservation of stem cells is wrong ?
Answer
B. Cryopreservation of hematopoietic stem cell is generally done using rapid freezing
72
Minimum nucleated cell count needed for eļ¬cient stem cell engraftment
Answer
B. 2 to cells/kg recipient body weight
73
Statement 1 - Patient blood management advocates normothermia during surgery. Statement 2 - Hypothermia increases bleeding by aļ¬ecting platelet function.
Answer
A. Statement 1 is correct, statement 2 is correct explanation for 1
74
Normocytic normochromic anaemia with high reticulocyte count is seen in
Answer
C. Acute blood loss
75
Which of the following is not a side eļ¬ect of iron chelators ?
Answer
C. Pancreatic dysfunction
76
Equipment calibration is an essential component of current good manufacturing practices in order to obtain accurate results. Which of the following is correct for the optimal centrifugation time for a manual tube method when calibration of a serologic laboratory centrifuge is performed ?
Answer
A. The shortest time when the cell button is easily suspended and the supernatant is clear
77
Which of the following biological safety cabinet provides personal, environment and product protection ?
Answer
C. Class II A
78
Which of the following is the highest level document in the documentation pyramid of a quality management system of a blood centre ?
Answer
C. Quality manual
79
What is the mandatory requirement for storage of various records and registers of blood centre as per the Drugs and Cosmetics Rules 1945 ?
Answer
B. 5 years
80
Which of the following is NOT a role of the hospital transfusion committee ?
Answer
C. Frame speciļ¬cations for purchase of equipment
81
Which of the following ethical principles emphasizes the concept of 'Do no Harm' ?
Answer
D. Non Maliļ¬cence
82
Jehovah's witness refuse blood transfusions due to religious reasons. Which of the following ethical principles best describes this ?
Answer
B. Autonomy
83
Which of the following techniques is not an automation technique in the immunohematology laboratory ?
Answer
B. Electronic cross matching
84
A protein is poorly expressed in a diseased tissue. Which of the following techniques will determine whether the defect is at the level of transcription or translation ?
Answer
D. Western and south western blot
85
What is the correct statement for polymerase chain reaction ?
Answer
C. It ampliļ¬es speciļ¬c DNA sequences
86
When there is a warning of 'Current blood group of the patient not matching with previous ABO-Rh results' of a donor in the blood centre information system software, it is an example of which control function ?
Answer
D. Decision support
87
Preventing the tissue of an incompatible blood unit by using information system software best describes which of the following ?
Answer
A. Control function
88
As per the Drugs and Cosmetics (Second Amendment) Rules 2020, what is the recommended deferral period for a blood donor who has undergone a minor surgery ?
Answer
C. Six months
89
You are the incharge of a blood component separation unit and your licence is going to expire on 31-12-2023. When and on which form should you supply for renewal of blood centre licence ?
Answer
D. Form 27 C; six months before expiry of licence
90
A new process is to be implemented in the transfusion laboratory. What would you ensure so that the process consistently produces the desired results ?
Answer
B. Process validation
91
According to latest biomedical waste management guidenlines, all broken or contaminated glassware is disposed oļ¬ in which colour coded container ?
Answer
D. Blue
92
A laboratory wishes to implement a new automated analyser. The instrument is expected to run 100 specimens per hour with turnaround time 10 minutes per specimen and a failure rate of less than 1%. The process that demonstrates this instrument meets customer speciļ¬cations is called
Answer
C. Performance qualiļ¬cation
93
All of the following statements are true about forms except
Answer
A. Anyone can design a form
94
Hold over time for blood storage refrigerator is deļ¬ned as
Answer
B. A full load of blood units at 4ĀŗC takes at least half hour to rise above +6Ā°C
95
Which of the following proteomics approach used for in-depth characterization of protein structure utilizes small sequences of peptides obtained from proteolytic digestion for reconstruction and analysis of primary structure of proteins ?
Answer
D. Bottom-up proteomics
96
Which of the following is a disadvantage of solid phase red cell adherence assay for use in immunohematology tests ?
Answer
B. High sensitivity for weak autoantibodies
97
Which of the following non-conformances best describes 'Diļ¬erence or inconsistency in the outcomes of a process, procedure or test results' in a blood centre laboratory ?
Answer
A. Discrepancy
98
Which of the following is a molecular method used in Human Leukocyte Antigen (HLA) testing, in which the individual's deoxyribonucleic acid (DNA) is immobilized on a membrane and incubated with a labeled complementary DNA designed to detect speciļ¬c HLA sequence ?
Answer
C. Sequence speciļ¬c oligonucleotide probe hybridization
99
Which of the following statements is incorrect statement for blood centre information system software ?
Answer
D. There is no requirement of standard operating procedure
100
What is the required minimum hemoglobin content of Red cells, leucocyte depleted using ļ¬ltration as per European blood component quality control standards ?
Answer
B. 40 gram per unit
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.