| Post Name | Assistant Professor Oral Pathology and Microbiology - Medical Education Department |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 073/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 331/2022 |
| Date of Test | 8 June 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
"Coup de sabre" appearance is seen in
Answer
B. Parry Romberg Syndrome
2
Capdepont teeth are a characteristic of
Answer
B. Dentinogenesis imperfecta
3
Hecks Disease is caused by
Answer
A. HPV 13 and 32
4
Omphalocoele is associated with
Answer
C. Beckwith Weidman's Syndrome
5
Congenital condylar hypoplasia is seen in all of the following Except
Answer
D. Facial hemiatrophy
6
'Tumor droplets' are found in
Answer
C. Adenamotoid odontogenic tumor
7
The ļ¬rst completely documented case of peripheral Ameloblastoma was described by
Answer
A. Stanley and Krogh
8
Epithelial and mesenchymal components show cytologic features of malignancy in
Answer
C. Odontogenic carcinosarcoma
9
Ackerman's classiļ¬cation is related to
Answer
D. Unicystic Ameloblastoma
10
"Tennis racquet" pattern is observed in the radiographs in
Answer
A. Odontogenic myxoma
11
EWSR-1 mutations are found in approximately 80% of
Answer
B. Clear cell odontogenic carcinoma
12
Sonic hedge hog mutations are implied in the pathogenesis of
Answer
B. Odontogenic keratocyst
13
The most common non-odontogenic cyst among the following is
Answer
B. Nasopalatine duct cyst
14
Ehlers Danlos syndrome is caused due to mutations in collagen
Answer
D. Type I, III, V
15
Non speciļ¬c mechanism in the pathogenesis of Lichen Planus include all of the following Except
Answer
A. Keratinocyte apoptosis
16
"Cell - with in - a cell" phenomenon is found in
Answer
B. Hereditary benign intra epithelial dyskeratosis
17
Direct immunoļ¬uorescence in paraneoplastic pemphigus shows
Answer
B. Positive immunoļ¬uorescence - intercellular and basement membrane zone
18
Libman - Sacks endocarditis is associated with
Answer
A. Systemic Lupus Erythmatosus
19
Di George syndrome is associated with
Answer
D. Hypoparathyroidism
20
Loss of fungiform and ļ¬liform papillar are seen in
Answer
B. Folic acid deļ¬ciency
21
Myasthenia Gravis manifestations include all of the following Except
Answer
C. Dysphonia
22
A 40 year old woman complains of unilateral pain in the orbital and temporal area, watering of eyes and nasal congestion. These symptoms are suggestive of a diagnosis of
Answer
B. Sphenopalatine neuralgia
23
Progeria is an
Answer
A. Autosomal recessive disorder
24
"Mitten like hand" and "Sock feet" are characteristic of
Answer
A. Apert Syndrome
25
Howell - Jolly bodies are found in the peripheral smears of
Answer
C. Sickle cell anemia
26
Streptococcus mutans are:
Answer
C. Facultative anaerobic, catalase negative, gram positive cocci
27
Extracellular polymer found in culture of streptococcus mutans which might contribute to adhesiveness of bacteria:
Answer
A. Lipoteichoic acid
28
The pK value of bicarbonate carbonic acid buļ¬er of oral mucosa is:
Answer
B. 6.1
29
Vesicle with a zone of erythema giving "a dew drop on a rose petal appearance" seen in
Answer
C. Herpes zoster
30
Lesion strongly associated with HIV infections:
Answer
D. Non-Hodgkin lymphoma
31
The protective protein absent in patients with xerostomia predisposing to candidiasis:
Answer
D. Histatin
32
Lues maligna is an explosive and widespread form of:
Answer
B. Secondary syphilis
33
Retrograde sialadenitis is known as:
Answer
A. Surgical mumps
34
Localised aggressive periodontitis is primarily associated with:
Answer
D. A. actinomycetemcomitans
35
Drug showing strong association with gingival hyperplasia:
Answer
B. Nifedipine
36
Papillon Lefevre syndrome is associated with loss of function of:
Answer
C. Cathepsin C gene
37
Dysplastic lesion which shows increased progression risk are:
Answer
C. Aneuploid dysplastic lesions
38
The putative pleomorphic adenoma gene has been mapped to chromosomes:
Answer
A. 8q12
39
Keratoacanothoma occurs more commonly
Answer
C. More common in male with fair skin
40
Lisch nodules are seen in:
Answer
D. Neuroļ¬bromatosis
41
The granular cells in granular cell tumor are
Answer
B. S100 and NSE positive and GFAP negative
42
The emergence or eruption of odontoma in the oral cavity in attributable to:
Answer
C. Intrinsic enlargement of the lesion
43
The common pattern of distribution and appearance of giant cells in Giant cell tumour of bone is:
Answer
A. Scattered uniformity throughout the lesion and have 40 to 60 nuclei.
44
Goldenhar syndrome is also known as:
Answer
D. Oculoauriculovertebral dysplasia
45
Cluster of lightly basophilic particles present in association with plasmocytic inļ¬ltrate in a periapical granuloma are called:
Answer
B. Pyronin bodies
46
A syndrome associated with gingival ļ¬bromatosis:
Answer
A. Costello syndrome
47
Downward extension of retropharyngeal space infection will result in:
Answer
B. Mediastinitis
48
Most susceptible permanent tooth for dental caries:
Answer
C. Mandibular ļ¬rst molar
49
In enamel caries the dark zone shows a pore volume of:
Answer
A. 2-4%
50
Osteocalcin expression by odontoblasts is higher in:
Answer
A. Reversible pulpitis
51
Which of the following is not a tumour suppressor gene
Answer
C. RAS
52
Loss of which of the following protein is implicated in aiding metastasis of tumour cells
Answer
B. Cadherins
53
All of the following viruses have been implicated in causation of hemato lymphoid neoplasm except
Answer
B. CMV
54
Angiogenesis is stimulated by all of the following except
Answer
C. P53
55
Burkitt lymphoma is positive for
Answer
C. CD20
56
"Popcorn cells" are seen in which variant of Hodgkins disease?
Answer
C. Lymphocyte predominant
57
Caspase in dependent programmed cell death is
Answer
B. Necroptosis
58
All are markers for malignant melanoma except
Answer
B. SOX11
59
A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is
Answer
B. Ames test
60
Spindle cell carcinoma is a variant of
Answer
C. Squamous cell carcinoma
61
Mammary analogue secretory carcinoma commonly occurs in
Answer
A. Parotid gland
62
E7 protein of high risk HPV aļ¬ects the following protein there by promotes carcinogenesis
Answer
D. RB
63
The precancerous lesion with highest malignant potential is
Answer
D. PVL
64
Storiform pattern of ļ¬brous tissue is found in
Answer
B. Malignant ļ¬brous histiocytoma
65
Most common soft tissue sarcoma of children is
Answer
C. Rhabdomyosarcoma
66
Vascular tumour with histopathologic features intermediate between haemangioma and angiosarcoma is
Answer
B. Hemangioendothelioma
67
Which stain is used to stain the smooth muscle in leiomyoma?
Answer
C. Masson trichrome
68
The most common and serious complication of Neuroļ¬bromatosis is
Answer
D. Malignant peripheral nerve sheath tumour
69
The variants of Kaposi sarcoma are all except
Answer
A. Pleomorphic
70
Inraosseous Mucoepidermoid carcinoma is believed to arise from
Answer
C. Epithelial lining of Odontogenic cysts
71
The colour of Interpol Postmortem Odontograms
Answer
C. Pink
72
Which of the following is not a method of age estimation in children and adolescents?
Answer
C. Gustafson's method
73
Impression material of choice for bite mark analysis?
Answer
D. Light body elastomeric impression material
74
Continually erupting incisors with diastema between incisors and molars is feature of
Answer
C. Rat family
75
The science concerned with relationship between human beings, machines and equipments they use and their working environment is called
Answer
A. Ergonomics
76
The image formed by the Objective lens of the microscope
Answer
B. Real image
77
The ability of an objective to resolve detail is indicated by its
Answer
C. Numerical aperture
78
The property of some substances and crystals to produce plane polarised light by diļ¬erential absorption is called
Answer
D. Dichroism
79
________ is cross-linking interface.
Answer
C. Gluderaldehyde
80
Formalin is ________.
Answer
A. an aqueous solution containing 37-40% formaldehyde
81
The correct order of steps in the stages of tissue processing is
Answer
A. Fixation-Dehydration-Cleaning-Inļ¬ltration-Embedding
82
________ is used exclusively as the embedding medium for electron microscopy.
Answer
B. Resin
83
The concept of Tissue Microscopy was ļ¬rst introduced by
Answer
C. Battifora
84
The specimen is held stationary and the knife slides across the top of the specimen during sectioning in
Answer
C. Base sledge Microtome
85
Best freezing technique for frozen section preparation is
Answer
C. Isopentane and Liquid Nitrogen
86
_______ is a type of Hematoxyline that undergoes natural ripening.
Answer
A. Ehrlich's Hematoxyline
87
Universal stain for cytological preparation
Answer
C. Papanicolaou stain
88
Fetal Collagen is
Answer
D. Type III collagen
89
In Van Gieson staining technique collagen takes _______ colour.
Answer
C. Red
90
The staining technique used to diļ¬erentiate neutral mucin from acidic mucin
Answer
D. Combined Alcien blue-PAS technique
91
The microscopic technique used for demonstrating amyloid is -
Answer
C. Polarized
92
Protein block is added in Immunohistochemistry to
Answer
C. Block background staining
93
Immuno ļ¬uorescence test was ļ¬rst described by
Answer
A. Coons
94
For Immuno ļ¬uorescence biopsy tissue should be transported to laboratory in
Answer
B. Michel transport medium at pH 7
95
Most common secondary ļ¬xative used for electron microscopy?
Answer
A. Osmium Tetroxide 1%
96
The special stain used for the demonstrations of both DNA and RNA
Answer
B. Methyl Green-pyronin test
97
The small round cell tumor which shows Desmin+, Myo Di+, CD44+, CKā, CD45ā
Answer
D. Rhabdomyosarcoma
98
Which of the following is not a Iron Hematoxyline solution
Answer
D. Ehrlich's Hematoxyline
99
________ is not technique for demonstration of Melanin.
Answer
D. Perls Prussian blue reaction
100
Microscopic slide speciļ¬cation for routine histology work
Answer
A. 76 Ć 25 mm slide of 1.0 - 1.2 mm thickness
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