| Post Name | Assistant Professor Paedodontics - Kerala Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 025/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 266/2025 |
| Date of Test | 11 February 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Reciprocal Inhibition is also another term for
Answer
A. Systemic Desensitization
2
The age of concrete operational phase of Piaget's stages of Cognitive Development
Answer
C. 7/8 years to 11/12 years
3
Audiovisual Modelling is a Behaviour Management technique based on whose theory
Answer
C. Albert Bandura
4
According to American Society of Anesthesiologists physical status classiļ¬cation system, A Patient with a severe systemic disease that is a constant threat to life is
Answer
C. ASA 4
5
Pediatric condition of falsiļ¬cation is another terminology for
Answer
B. Manchunsen syndrome by proxy
6
Subjective fear is based on
Answer
B. Somebody else's experiences without actually undergoing treatment
7
Super ego is based on which principle as per Sigmund Freud's theory
Answer
D. Morality principle
8
Who coined the term Laughing gas for inhalation nitrous oxide?
Answer
A. Sir Humphrey Davy
9
According to Frankl rating scale 'Positive' behaviour is
Answer
C. Rating 3
10
'Shaken baby syndrome' is a type of
Answer
C. Child abuse
11
According to Stanford-Binet moderate IQ level score is
Answer
D. 36-51
12
Then Latent stage in Sigmund Freud's theory lasts from
Answer
A. 7-11 years
13
Genetic theory of Growth was given by
Answer
Question Cancelled
14
Neural growth attains 90% growth by age
Answer
A. 7 years
15
Contingency management is based on
Answer
B. Operant conditioning
16
The Dental Home is established for children to (i) Provide access to dental care for caries management (ii) Give dental care exclusively for children with special health care needs (iii) Provide anticipatory guidance and customized preventive management (iv) Referral to specialists when required
Answer
C. (i), (iii) and (iv) are correct
17
AAPD and APD recommendation for interval of professional topical ļ¬uoride application for high caries risk children is
Answer
B. Every 3-6 months
18
Substituting Xylitol for sucrose in the diet will cause (i) Reduction in plaque formation (ii) Reduction in Bacterial adhesion (iii) Inhibition of enamel demineralization
Answer
D. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
19
The atraumatic restorative technique involves the following (i) Use of hand instruments for removal of caries (ii) Chemically cured glass ionomer cement (iii) Provide access where dental care availability is difficult (iv) Is a standard of care for un-cooperative pediatric patients
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
20
Recession of gingiva in children in the mandibular incisor region is most likely due to
Answer
Question Cancelled
21
The recommended position for examination of infants below 2 years of age is
Answer
C. Knee to Knee position
22
The recommended space maintainer for premature loss of second mandibular deciduous molar when the permanent ļ¬rst molar is partially erupted is
Answer
B. Reverse band and loop space maintainer
23
The school health programme endorsed by the Ministry of Health and family welfare, Govt. of India is
Answer
Question Cancelled
24
Placement of a sealant along with composite restoration in a minimally carious tooth is called
Answer
C. Preventive Resin Restoration
25
A caries risk assessment tool based on colour coded sectors to predict risk of avoiding caries is
Answer
D. Cariogram
26
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Glass transition Temperature for Impression compound? (i) The temperature at which material softens to a plastic material mass which can be manipulated (ii) The temperature at which material loses its hardness or brittleness on heating (iii) The temperature at which material forms a rigid mass on cooling
Answer
Question Cancelled
27
Compared to permanent teeth, primary teeth have
Answer
D. Both (2) and (3)
28
Gold standard isolation technique for adhesive restoration is
Answer
C. Rubber dam
29
Glass ionomer cement bonds to tooth structure by
Answer
C. Ionic exchange
30
Hall technique involves placement of SSC
Answer
C. Without caries removal
31
Resin-modiļ¬ed GIC diļ¬ers from conventional GIC by
Answer
B. Addition of resin monomers
32
Fibre posts are preferred over metal posts in children because they
Answer
B. Have elastic modulus similar to dentin
33
The primary reason for avoiding "extension for prevention" in pediatric operative dentistry is
Answer
C. High pulp horn position
34
In primary molars, the pulp horn most commonly involved in occlusal caries is
Answer
A. Mesiobuccal
35
The most critical factor aļ¬ecting longevity of composite restorations in children is
Answer
B. Isolation
36
Predentin consists mainly of which type of collagen?
Answer
A. Collagen I and III
37
What is the formulation of Buckley's formocresol?
Answer
B. 19% formaldehyde and 35% cresol
38
In class III Ellis fracture
Answer
Question Cancelled
39
Best alternative storage medium for avulsed teeth, in case culture media are not available is
Answer
A. Milk
40
Which of the following is the preferred luting cement for cementation of crowns in pediatric dentistry?
Answer
C. Glass ionomer cement
41
Which one of the following endodontic irrigants has antimicrobial as well as tissue dissolving properties?
Answer
D. Sodium Hypochlorite
42
Vitapex is a combination of
Answer
A. 30% calcium hydroxide, 40.4% iodoform and 22.4% silicone oil
43
What are the Vital Pulp Therapy (VPT) options for the treatment of deep dentin carious lesions approximating the pulp in vital primary teeth?
Answer
D. All of the above
44
Which of the following is not a criteria for an ideal pulpectomy obturant?
Answer
C. Slower resorb ability
45
Which of the following is not an indication for pulp therapy in primary teeth?
Answer
B. Furcation involvement in primary molars due to caries
46
A custom mouthguard should not
Answer
D. Prevent mouth breathing
47
Deep lacerations of the tongue should be managed by
Answer
C. Deep suturing with slowly resorbing monoļ¬lament suture
48
Calciļ¬c metamorphosis of the dental pulp could be caused by
Answer
D. All of the above
49
Botulinum toxin A, is used in
Answer
A. Management of self-injurious behaviours
50
Heithersay GS classiļ¬ed
Answer
A. Dentin resorption
51
Which of the following are treatment options for an infraoccluded ankylosed tooth? (i) Composite build-up (ii) Decoronation (iii) Autotransplantation (iv) Bone distraction
Answer
D. Options (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
52
If a parent or caregiver has replanted an avulsed primary tooth
Answer
A. The tooth could be left in-situ and splinted
53
A carbon dioxide pencil is used for
Answer
B. Pulp sensibility tests
54
In a maxillofacial injury with bleeding from the meatus
Answer
C. Under no circumstance should the ear be suctioned
55
True statements about tetracycline are (i) Acts against collagenase (ii) Binds to the tooth surface (iii) Decreases ruffled border of osteoclasts
Answer
C. Options (i), (ii) and (iii)
56
Retraction of incisors using a removable appliance in mixed dentition is contraindicated when
Answer
B. Vertical clearance is absent
57
In deep overbite cases during mixed dentition, the primary determinant for intervention is
Answer
C. Curve of Spee
58
To achieve 3 mm of tooth movement using lingual ļ¬nger springs, the minimum total activation required over 3 months would be approximately
Answer
B. 4.5 - 6 mm
59
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Physiologic bite opening is seen with eruption of (i) Physiologic bite opening is seen with eruption of first permanent molar (ii) Physiologic bite opening is seen with eruption of second permanent molar (iii) Physiologic bite opening is seen with eruption of third permanent molar
Answer
D. All statements (i), (ii) and (iii) are correct
60
The ratio between inter-premolar width increase and arch perimeter gain during posterior crossbite correction is approximately
Answer
C. 1 : 0.7
61
Compared with digit-sucking, paciļ¬er use is associated with an increased prevalence of
Answer
C. Posterior crossbite
62
Adenoid facies is a feature mostly seen in
Answer
B. Patients with Class II Div 1 malocclusion, more than 30Ā° FMA angle and having mouth breathing habit
63
Which statement BEST summarizes orthodontic triage philosophy for Step 5?
Answer
C. Treat early only when spontaneous correction is unlikely
64
Which is the MOST appropriate initial management for ectopic eruption of a permanent ļ¬rst molar with minimal resorption of primary molars?
Answer
D. Watchful waiting
65
Which procedure is neither purely preventive nor purely interceptive, but may act as both?
Answer
B. Habit-breaking appliance
66
Incisor irregularity > 3 mm with adequate space is best managed by
Answer
C. Space management
67
Which statement is true regarding leeway space?
Answer
C. Maximum leeway space is provided by 2nd deciduous molar
68
Histologically which tissue looks like a two side epiphyseal plate and has an area of cellular hyperplasia in the center with band of maturing cartilage cells extending in both directions known as
Answer
C. Synchondrosis
69
Which statement is true regarding the center of rotation in translatory tooth movement?
Answer
A. The center of rotation is at inļ¬nity
70
Rapid expansion should not be done in a young child with primary dentition because
Answer
B. There is risk of distortion of facial structures with rapid expansion
71
Which of the following statement regarding caries detecting dyes is FALSE?
Answer
D. Calcein is a dye to enhance diagnostic quality of ļ¬beroptic trans illumination
72
Which of the following statements are FALSE regarding caries susceptibility? (i) In children below 3 years, occlusal caries are less common compared to interproximal caries (ii) Second primary molars have less occlusal caries compared to first primary molars (iii) Newly erupted first permanent molars and incisors are more prone to caries (iv) Second permanent molars are more susceptible to dental caries compared to premolars
Answer
C. (i) and (ii)
73
In calorimetric Snyder test, to conļ¬rm caries inactivity, the color of bromocresol green should remain green till?
Answer
A. 72 hours
74
Most common type of ļ¬ssures on occlusal surface of molars is?
Answer
C. V type
75
As per American Association of Pediatric Dentistry guidelines, DENTAL HOME to prevent early childhood caries should be established before?
Answer
B. 12 months of age
76
According to Cauļ¬eld and colleagues, WINDOW OF INFECTIVITY for establishment of cariogenic microorganism in the oral cavity takes place at?
Answer
A. 19-33 months of age
77
Xylitol had the potential for remineralization of early white spot lesion was conļ¬rmed by which of the following sugar studies?
Answer
C. Turku study
78
Which type among the following is the most cariogenic diet?
Answer
C. Adherent, sucrose containing, eaten frequently between meals
79
Which of the codings for primary carious lesion in international caries detection and assessment system (ICDAS) are FALSE? (i) code 6-extensive distinct cavity with visible dentin with half or more than half of surface involved (ii) code 4-underlying dark-shadow from dentine +/- localized enamel break down (iii) code 2-ļ¬rst visual change in enamel (iv) code 5-localized enamel breakdown due to caries (initial enamel cavitation) with no visible dentine or underlying shadow
Answer
D. (iii) and (iv)
80
Salivary proteins inhibiting formation of hydroxy appetite?
Answer
A. Statherin
81
The objectives of pre surgical treatment eļ¬ort in cleft lip and palate babies include (a) Reduction in severity of cleft deformity (b) Increase the nasal base width with columella elongation (c) Decrease the nasal base width with columella elongation (d) Attempt to achieve symmetry of nasal cartilage
Answer
C. (a), (c) and (d) are correct
82
Closure of the palate in cleft palate cases is done at age
Answer
C. At the age of 1 year to facilitate the acquisition of normal speech with improvement of hearing and swallowing
83
Management of child with special health care needs during Dental treatment, use of stabilization is contraindicated in
Answer
D. (b) and (c) are correct
84
Infective endocarditis in acute form is associated with
Answer
A. Staphylococcus, group A Streptococcus and Pneumococcus
85
Hemophilia C
Answer
B. Is Rosenthal syndrome inherited as autosomal recessive trait aļ¬ecting male and female oļ¬ springs equally
86
For children with bleeding disorder
Answer
A. e-aminocarpoicacid administered immediately prior to dental treatment using an optional initial loading dose of 200 mg/kg by mouth
87
Down syndrome is
Answer
A. Best known chromosomal disorder caused by presence of an extra copy of chromosome 21 (Trisomy 21) with congenital cardiac defect is about 40%
88
Autism spectrum is order include
Answer
C. Asperger syndrome, autism disorder and pervasive development disorder
89
Roberstonian translocation involve
Answer
B. Two acrocentric chromosomes that fuse near the centrometric region with a subsequent loss of short arms
90
Major manifestations of clinical symptoms of Rhuematic fever include
Answer
C. Carditis, Polyarthritis, Chorea, Erythema marginatum, Subcutaneous nodules
91
Anterior belly of digastric is supplied by
Answer
A. Nerve to mylohyoid
92
Bones that reduce size of maxillary hiatus in articulated skull are (i) Descending process of lacrimal bone (ii) Lacrimal process of inferior nasal concha (iii) Perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone (iv) Perpendicular plate of palatine bone
Answer
D. Only (i), (ii) and (iv)
93
All are true statements about otic ganglion except
Answer
D. Post ganglionic parasympathetic ļ¬bres from the otic ganglion join the facial nerve and supply secretomotor ļ¬ber to the parotid gland
94
True statements regarding the nerve supply of tongue are (i) Injury to the lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa causes loss of general sensation of anterior 2/3rd of tongue (ii) Injury to the lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa causes loss of taste sensation of anterior 2/3rd of tongue (iii) Chorda tympani nerve conveys taste sensations of anterior 2/3rd of tongue (iv) Palatoglossus muscle is supplied by hypoglossal nerve
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iii)
95
Assertion : During Thyroidectomy the superior thyroid artery is ligated away from the apex of thyroid gland. Reason : The superior thyroid artery and external laryngeal nerve diverge from each other near the apex.
Answer
D. Assertion is false, and Reason is true
96
Oligodontia by deļ¬nition is
Answer
C. Congenital absence of more than six teeth excluding third molars
97
Application of lasers in pediatric dentistry includes
Answer
D. All of the above
98
Ethical aspects of health research to protect human subjects include
Answer
D. All of the above
99
Neonatal teeth are the teeth
Answer
B. Teeth erupt during the ļ¬rst 30 days of life
100
Which of the following methods is eļ¬ective in minimizing radiation exposure to patients?
Answer
D. All of the above
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