| Post Name | Assistant Professor Pathology and Microbiology - Government Homoeopathic Medical Colleges |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 056/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 050/2020 |
| Date of Test | 2 June 2023 |
| Medium of Question | MALAYALAM |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
All the following are mediators of inflammation derived from Arachidonic acid through Cyclo oxygenase pathway Except:
Answer
C. Lipoxin A4
2
Which of the following is not a component of Granulation tissue?
Answer
B. Epithelioid cell
3
Pain associated with acute inflammation is due to the action of:
Answer
A. Bradykinin
4
Libman Sack's endocarditis is seen in:
Answer
C. Systemic Lupus Erythematosus
5
Which of the following hypersensitivity reaction is associated with Autoimmune haemolytic anaemia?
Answer
B. Type II
6
Brown induration of Lung is seen in:
Answer
D. CVC Lung
7
Haemorrhagic infarct is seen in the following organ:
Answer
B. Lung
8
Lines of Zahn are seen in:
Answer
A. Thrombus
9
The mechanism of Oedema in cardiac failure is:
Answer
B. Increased hydrostatic pressure of circulating blood
10
Nutmeg Liver is a condition associated with:
Answer
C. Chronic Venous Congestion
11
The special stain used to demonstrate fat embolism is
Answer
D. Sudan III
12
Which of the free radical species is generated from hydrolysis of water?
Answer
A. Hydroxyl radical
13
The pattern of tissue necrosis seen in focus of tuberculous infection is:
Answer
B. Caseous
14
The cellular adaptation characterised by increase in the number of cells in an organ or tissue in response to a stimulus is:
Answer
A. Hyperplasia
15
All the following are examples of dystrophic calcification Except:
Answer
D. Vitamin D intoxication
16
The pigment deposited in different organs and tissues in Ochronosis is:
Answer
B. Homogentisic acid
17
Glycogen accumulation in tissue can be demonstrated by the following staining:
Answer
A. Best Carmine
18
Formation of epithelioid cells from activation of macrophages in Tuberculosis is by the action of:
Answer
C. Interferon gamma
19
Morphologic pattern of Hansen's disease is determined by:
Answer
A. Helper T Lymphocyte
20
Which of the following is an example of X linked Recessive disorder?
Answer
C. Duchenne muscular dystrophy
21
Serum level of alpha feto protein is elevated in the following tumour
Answer
D. Hepato cellular carcinoma
22
Lack of differentiation of cells to the tissue of origin is termed as:
Answer
A. Anaplasia
23
Retrograde spread by hematogenous route is common for the following tumour
Answer
B. Carcinoma Prostate
24
Which of the following tumour is due to transcoelomic spread
Answer
D. Krukenberg tumour
25
Grading of cancer is based on the following features Except:
Answer
A. Spread to regional Lymph node
26
Li-Fraumeni Syndrome is associated with all, except -
Answer
B. High risk for Renal cell carcinoma
27
Divergent differentiation in Urothelial carcinoma are all, except -
Answer
D. Chondroid differentiation
28
All are true regarding basal - like molecular subtype of Breast carcinoma, except -
Answer
C. Seen in Micropapillary carcinoma
29
Weiss Criteria for Malignancy in Adrenal Cortical Tumours includes all, except -
Answer
B. <50% clear cells
30
According to Internal National Society of Urological Pathology, most specific marker for Urothelial differentiation with relative low sensitivity is -
Answer
C. Uroplakin III
31
Papillary Thyroid Carcinoma cells are immunoreactive for all, except -
Answer
D. CK - 20
32
All are features of Ulcerative colitis, except -
Answer
D. Stricture
33
Schaumann bodies are seen in
Answer
B. Sarcoidosis
34
Systemic manifestation of Lung Carcinoma include -
Answer
D. All
35
All are true regarding Immature Teratoma of Ovary except -
Answer
C. Graded on number of high-power field with immature neural tissue
36
Adult granulose cell tumours are immunophenotypically positive for
Answer
B. FOXL 2
37
Mutations/Genetic abnormalities seen in Type II Endometrial Carcinoma are all except -
Answer
C. PTEN
38
"Tram track appearance" of glomerular basement membrane is seen in -
Answer
A. MPGN
39
All are true regarding Autosomal Dominant polycystic Kidney Disease, except -
Answer
C. Associated with hepatic fibrosis
40
Following Hematological criteria for the accelerated phase of Chronic Myeloid Leukemia are correct, except -
Answer
C. >10% Basophils in Peripheral blood
41
Common cytogenetic abnormality seen in Essential Thrombocythemia are all, except -
Answer
D. BCR-ABL 1
42
Most important genetic indicator of high-risk Myeloma are all, except -
Answer
C. Del 13
43
Lacunar cells are seen in,
Answer
A. Nodular sclerosing classic HL
44
Warm Antibody Type immune hemolytic anemia are associated with all, except -
Answer
B. Viral infections
45
Deficiency of Gp llb-llla complex cause -
Answer
A. Glanzmann thrombasthenia
46
In Glioblastoma, molecular aberration associated with longer survival is
Answer
B. IDH
47
Grade II meningioma are all, except -
Answer
B. Metaplastic meningioma
48
Most common gene mutation in Osteosarcoma is
Answer
A. RB
49
According to French Federation of Cancer Centres Sarcoma group, Soft tissue sarcomas are graded on the basis of following factors except -
Answer
A. Tumour size
50
All are premalignant lesions, except -
Answer
C. Large cell acanthoma
51
Find out the aerotolerant anaerobe?
Answer
A. Clostridium perfringens
52
Which among the following possess genetic configuration of double stranded linear DNA?
Answer
D. T 7 bacteriophage
53
Brevundimonas diminuta is used as a sterilization control of
Answer
D. Membrane filters
54
Name the group of bacteria which obtain reducing equivalents (electrons) from inorganic compounds?
Answer
B. Lithotrophs
55
All the given diseases are transmitted by Hard Tick except?
Answer
C. Endemic relapsing fever
56
The National Collection of Type cultures is situated at?
Answer
B. England
57
Which antibiotic among the following is time dependent antibiotic?
Answer
A. Carbapenems
58
Name the scientist who had attempted to demonstrate a physical reality to the transmission of infection in the case of syphilis and gonorrhea by inoculating a subject with pus from sores of a person with gonorrhea and syphilis.
Answer
A. John Hunter
59
Which modification of gram staining is useful for Meningococci and Gonococci?
Answer
B. Jensen's modification
60
Polymyxins act against the microbes by carrying out which of the following actions?
Answer
C. Damage to the cytoplasmic membrane
61
Which is the monoclonal antibody that act against VEGF (Vascular endothelial growth factor) and is used in the treatment of colorectal cancers?
Answer
A. Bevacizumab
62
Which of the following Immunodeficiency disorder/disorders are due to combined B and T cell defects? (I) Digeorge Syndrome (II) Ataxia telangiectasia (III) Nezelof Syndrome (IV) Chronic granulomatous diseases
Answer
C. (II) and (III)
63
Nagler reaction is example of ________?
Answer
D. Neutralization test
64
Which of the following statements are wrong regarding Toll like receptors (TLRs)? (I) TLR-2 binds to lipoteichoic acid of gram positive bacterial cell wall (II) TLR-9 binds to bacterial DNA (III) TLR-3 binds to flagella of bacteria (IV) TLR-5 binds to ss RNA of viruses
Answer
D. (III) and (IV)
65
Find out the correct statement regarding Affinity and Avidity?
Answer
D. IgM has a low affinity than IgG
66
Which of the following represents the T cell area of the lymph node?
Answer
C. Para cortical area
67
Which among the following statements are true regarding antigen processing pathways? (I) In cytosolic pathway, exogenous antigens are processed (II) In endocytic pathway, exogenous antigens are processed (III) In cytosolic pathway, antigen is presented to CD8 T cells (IV) In endocytic pathway, antigen is complexed with MHC Class II Molecules
Answer
B. (II), (III) and (IV)
68
The most common class of antibody involved in type II hypersensitivity?
Answer
A. Ig G
69
C5 Convertase in classical complement pathway is _______.
Answer
A. C14b2a3b
70
Find out the live vaccines among the following? (I) Sabin polio vaccine (II) MMR vaccine (III) Rota virus vaccine (IV) Rabies vaccine
Answer
C. (I), (II) and (III)
71
All the statements are true regarding Widal test except
Answer
B. H antibody titre more than 1/100 and O antibody titre more than 1/200 is significant
72
Which statement is false regarding pathogenesis of Shigellosis?
Answer
A. Minimum infective dose 10-1000 bacilli
73
All are true regarding Leprosy except
Answer
A. Leionine facies appearance is typically seen in Tuberculoid leprosy
74
All are true regarding MRSA except,
Answer
C. All generations of Cephalosporins should be avoided including generation
75
Choose the Invitro tests available for the diagnosis of Diphtheria.
Answer
D. All of the above
76
Which of the following Atypical mycobacteria produce Buruli ulcer
Answer
A. Mycobacterium ulcerans
77
Which Clostridial species is responsible for necrotizing fasciitis?
Answer
B. Clostridium perfringens
78
Which statement is true regarding caseous necrosis in Pulmonary tuberculosis?
Answer
D. All of the above
79
Disadvantages of Non Treponemal tests include the following:
Answer
D. All of the above
80
Which statement is true regarding Non Gonococcal Urethritis
Answer
D. All of the above
81
Smallest cestode infecting man
Answer
D. Hymenolepis nana
82
Maltese cross appearance seen in
Answer
C. Babesiosis
83
All the following nematodes are viviparous except
Answer
B. Enterobious vermicularis
84
Which of the following is true regarding Trichomonas vaginalis?
Answer
D. All of the above
85
Giardia lamblia inhabits in
Answer
D. Duodenum
86
Barrel shaped arthroconidia with alternate distorted cells are seen in
Answer
B. Coccidioidomycosis
87
South American Trypanosomiasis is caused by
Answer
A. Trypanosoma cruzi
88
Medlar bodies are characteristic of
Answer
C. Chromoblastomycosis
89
Spaghetti and meatball appearance are characteristic of
Answer
C. Malassezia furfur
90
The probable aetiological agent of Mycetoma, sinus with discharging red granules
Answer
C. Actinomadura pelletieri
91
The earliest Antibody marker appears to be seen in blood of Hepatitis B patients
Answer
A. Anti HBc antibody
92
Herpetic whitlow indicates
Answer
C. Localised infection seen in finger tips of health care workers, doctors and nurses
93
The following are true regarding Bacteriophages
Answer
D. All of the above
94
The staining technique used for demonstration of Negri bodies
Answer
C. Seller's stain
95
All are true regarding Antigenic drift except,
Answer
A. It produces abrupt, drastic and discontinuous variation in antigenic structure of the virus
96
All the following are clinical conditions produced by Parvo virus B-19 except,
Answer
C. Genital tumours
97
All are regarding NACO (National AIDS Control Organisation) except,
Answer
B. Strategy 1 is used for Surveillance purposes
98
All are human prion diseases except,
Answer
B. Scrapie
99
Which virus possess the shape of space vehicle?
Answer
D. Adeno virus
100
All are true regarding Measles except
Answer
B. Koplik spots develop 1 to 2 days after the appearance of rash.
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