| Post Name | Assistant Professor Physiology and Biochemistry - Government Homoeopathic Medical Colleges |
|---|---|
| Department | HEALTH SERVICES Category No : 274/2022 |
| Question Paper Code | 052/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 048/2020 |
| Date of Test | 1 June 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Glucose transporter concerned with glucose absorption in intestine is
Answer
B. Glut 2
2
Which of the following is NOT an example of dietary fibre ?
Answer
D. Trehalose
3
How many substrate level phosphorylation steps are there in glycolytic pathway ?
Answer
B. Two
4
Essential pentosuria is an inborn error in metabolism of
Answer
C. Glucuronic acid pathway
5
Which of the following enzymes is NOT activated by insulin ?
Answer
A. Glucokinase
6
Which of the following statements is false regarding Rapoport Leubering cycle ?
Answer
D. 1 molecule of ATP is used up in this cycle
7
Substrates of gluconeogenesis include, all Except
Answer
C. Leucine
8
An example of acute complication of diabetes mellitus is
Answer
A. Diabetic ketoacidosis
9
Physiologic significance of HMP shunt pathway
Answer
B. Generation of NADPH
10
The key enzyme in breakdown of glycogen is
Answer
A. Glycogen phosphorylase
11
Which of the following is an example of ω3 fatty acid ?
Answer
C. Linolenic acid
12
Beta oxidation of fatty acid occurs in
Answer
B. Mitochondria
13
Lipolysis is
Answer
B. Breakdown of triglycerides
14
Apolipoprotein concerned with activation of LCAT is
Answer
A. Apo AI
15
Appearance of a creamy layer over clear plasma when kept for 24 hrs. is seen in
Answer
A. Type I hyperlipoproteinemia
16
Which of the following amino acid is ketogenic ?
Answer
D. Leucine
17
The amino acid contributing to one carbon pool
Answer
B. Glycine
18
Functions of glutathione include all of the following Except
Answer
B. Disulphide bond formation
19
Mention the B complex vitamin, the active form of which is required for many biochemical reactions of amino acids
Answer
C. Pyridoxine
20
Serotonin is a biologically important substance derived from
Answer
D. Tryptophan
21
All the vitamins are produced from precursors in human body Except
Answer
B. Ascorbic acid
22
Rate limiting step in catabolism of Heme is
Answer
D. Excretion of conjugated bilirubin into bile
23
Which of the following statements about Obstructive Jaundice are true ? i. Increased levels of conjugated bilirubin in blood. ii. Direct Positive Vanden Bergh Test for bilirubin. iii. Increased excretion of urobilinogen in urine. iv. Increased cholesterol in blood.
Answer
C. Only i, ii and iv
24
The antithyroid drug methimazole decreases thyroid function by
Answer
B. Reducing oxidation of iodine to active iodide
25
To calculate creatinine clearance by Cockcroft-Gault formula, all the following data are required Except
Answer
D. Urine creatinine concentration
26
Which of the following scenarios is the most consistent with a diagnosis of acute liver disease ?
Answer
C. Normal serum albumin, increased prothrombin time
27
Which of the following mineral is known as 'Glucose Tolerance Factor' ?
Answer
A. Chromium
28
Identify the incorrect statement/s. i. The most useful test for assessing thyroid function is TSH. ii. TSH Receptor Antibody is positive in 80-90% of patients with Hashimoto's thyroiditis. iii. Anti-thyroglobulin auto antibodies interfere with thyroglobulin measurements. iv. In Grave's disease, TSH is low and fT4 is normal.
Answer
C. Only ii
29
Which of the following is not a feature of pre-renal azotemia ? i. Low blood pressure. ii. Increased Fractional Excretion of Sodium (FENa). iii. Increased BUN/Serum Creatinine Ratio. iv. Increased serum creatinine.
Answer
A. Only ii
30
Which of the following statement concerning Vitamin - D is incorrect ?
Answer
C. Vitamin - D is an anti-oxidant
31
A 45 year old patient came with complaints of easy fatigueability and palpitations. On examination, she had pallor. Methyl malonic acid, excretion in urine was estimated as part of evaluation. This can be utilised to assess the nutritional status of which Vitamin ?
Answer
B. Vitamin B12
32
Group the liver function tests listed below as I - Tests based on excretory function. II - Tests based on synthetic function i. Serum bilirubin ii. Urine bile salts iii. Prothrombin time
Answer
A. I - (i, ii), II - (iii)
33
Which of the following is not a coenzyme ?
Answer
D. S - adenosyl methionine
34
A 20 year old man presented with jaundice and tiredness. On investigating, his AST was 150 Iu/L, ALT was 175 Iu/L and bilirubin was 4.5 mg/dl. Serum Cerruloplasmin levels were found to be low. Which of the following mineral is used in the treatment of this condition ?
Answer
B. Zinc
35
A 20 year old body builder presented with fatigue on moderate exercise. He had recently started raw eggs for protein. Which of the following enzyme is likely deficient in him ?
Answer
D. Pyruvate carboxylase
36
AST : ALT ratio greater than 2 is seen in all Except
Answer
D. Acute hepatocellular injury
37
Which of the following is not a type of covalent modification for regulation of enzyme kinetics ?
Answer
B. Ionization
38
Black liver jaundice is a feature of
Answer
B. Dubin-Johnson Syndrome
39
Which of the following is not a non-functional enzymes ?
Answer
A. Lipoprotein Lipase
40
Which of the following vitamin deficiencies make a patient prone to lactic acidosis ?
Answer
B. Thiamine
41
Proteins which prevent inappropriate contact of nascent proteins with other proteins to ensure final proper confirmation of nascent protein is
Answer
C. Chaperones
42
Which of the following statement is/are true about ENaCs (Epithelial Sodium Channels) ? i. ENac in kidney play an important role in regulation of ECF volume by aldosterone. ii. ENaCs are made up of two subunits encoded by different genes. iii. ENaC knockout mice are born alive but die as water collect in lungs. iv. ENaC's are inhibited by diuretic amiloride.
Answer
C. Only i, iii and iv
43
Which of the following statement is/are false about programmed cell death ? i. Cells's own genes play an active role in its demise. ii. A common process during development and adulthood. iii. Also called 'cell murder'. iv. Activation of a group of serine proteases is one of the final pathway common pathway that brings about programmed cell death.
Answer
B. Only iii and iv
44
Which of the following statement is/are true about interferon ? i. Used to treat AIDS related Kaposi Sarcoma. ii. Promotes growth of granulocytes and monocytes and causes activation of macrophages. iii. Used to enhance killing of phagocytosed bacteria in chronic granulomatous diseases. iv. Causes induction of resistance of cells to viral infections.
Answer
B. Only i and iv
45
Which of the following statement is/are true about stages of erythropoiesis ? i. Nucleoli disappear in basophilic normoblast stage. ii. Cytoplasm of polychromatic normoblast contain mixture of basophilic RNA and acidophilic hemoglobin. iii. Mitotic activity disappears in polychromatic stage. iv. Ortho chromatic normoblast has scanty, deeply basophilic cytoplasm.
Answer
C. Only i and ii
46
Which of the following statement is/are true about overdrive supression ? i. Results from activity of membrane - ATPase. ii. Automaticity of pacemaker cells increases after these cells are excited at a higher frequency. iii. When an ectopic focus in atria with higher rate than SAN stops firing suddenly SAN will remain quiscent for some time due to overdrive supression. iv. Results from activity of ATPase pump.
Answer
A. Only i and iii
47
Which of the following statement is/are true about second heart sound ? i. Is composed of higher frequency vibrations is of short duration and lower intensity than first heart sound. ii. Portion of second heart sound caused by pulmonic valve closure is heard best at second thoracic interspace just to the left of sternum. iii. The aortic valve sound is generally louder than pulmonic. iv. The nature of second heart sound changes with respiration
Answer
D. All the above i, ii, iii, iv
48
Which of the following statement is/are true about atrial systole ? i. Contribution of atrial systole to ventricular filling is governed to a greater extent by heart rate and position of AV valve. ii. Onset of atrial systole occurs with beginning of 'P' wave of ECG. iii. Atrial systole is responsible for small increase in atrial, ventricular and venous pressures. iv. Transfer of blood from atria to ventricle by atrial contraction completes the period of ventricular filling.
Answer
C. Only i, iii and iv
49
Which of the following statement is/are true about cardiac innervation ? i. Administration of atropine can increase heart rate from normal resting rate to 150-180 beats/mt. ii. Increase in force of contraction of heart on sympathetic stimulation is inotropic effect. iii. In humans in whom both nor adrenergic and cholinergic systems are blocked, heart rate is approximately 100 beats/mt. iv. Sympathetic stimulation of heart increasing rate of transmission in cardiac conductive tissue is chronotropic effect.
Answer
B. Only i, ii and iii
50
Which of the following statement is/are true about P-glycoprotein in cerebral capillaries ? i. A multidrug nonspecific transports in apical membrane of endothelial cells. ii. It is an ATP dependent efflux pump. iii. Transports drugs and peptides that cross cerebral capillaries back into blood. iv. Blocks various anticancer drugs from entering brain and tumor tissues.
Answer
C. All the above i, ii, iii and iv
51
Which of the following statement is/are false about Nitric oxide ? i. Nitric oxide synthase 1 is found in endothelial cells and catalyze the reaction of synthesis of nitric oxide from Arginine. ii. Flow induced dilatation in large arteries to tissues is due to local release of nitric oxide. iii. Nitric oxide acting via cAMP is important in brain function. iv. Nitric oxide is inactivated by hemoglobin through dioxygenation.
Answer
A. Only i and iii
52
Which of the following statement is/are true about ECG changes due to variation in ionic composition of blood ? i. When plasma level rises (± 7.0 meq/l) first change is appearance of tall peaked 'T' wave ii. Plasma level ± 8.5 meq/l causes prolongation of QRS complex with tall slender 'T' wave. iii. Decrease in plasma may cause prominent 'u' wave and late 'T' inversion in precardial leads. iv. Hypocalcemia causes prolongation of ST segment and QT interval.
Answer
B. All the above (i, ii, iii, iv)
53
Which of the following statement is/are true about low pressure baroreceptors in atria ? i. They are bare ends of myelinated nerve fibers. ii. They are mechanoreceptors that regulate effective circulating volume and cardiac output.' iii. Afferent fibers of atrial receptors project to medulla and hypothalamus. iv. Increased stretch of atrial B-type receptors like high pressure receptors decrease heart rate.
Answer
A. i, ii and iii only
54
Which of the following statement is/are true about vasovagal syncope ? i. Massive vasodilation occurs but resulting fall in blood pressure is not corrected by baroreceptor response. ii. There will be profound fall in Mean Arterial Blood Pressure. iii. Loss of consciousness is due to transient fall in perfusion pressure to brain. iv. The plasma Arginine Vasopression level is found to be decreased in vasovagal syncope.
Answer
A. Only i, ii and iii
55
Which of the following statement is/are true regarding coronary circulation ? i. Receives 15% of cardiac output from left heart and mostly returns it to right heart. ii. Changes in heart rate will not affect coronary blood flow. iii. There is nearly linear correspondence between myocardial oxygen consumption and myocardial blood flow. iv. Heart relies primarily on metabolic mechanisms to increase caliber of coronary vessels.
Answer
B. Only iii and iv
56
Which of the following statement is/are true about non respiratory functions of lung ? i. Angiotension converting enzyme is located in caveolae intracellulars on surface of pulmonary capillary endothelial cells and convert Angiotension I to Angiotension II. ii. Major site of inactivation of serotonin is lung and it is by enzymatic degradation. iii. Prostaglandins E1, E2 and F2 are activated in lung. iv. Lung secrets IgA in bronchial mucus.
Answer
C. i and iv only
57
Which of the following statement is/are false ? i. V/Q decreases from top to bottom of lung. ii. Pulmonary capillary uptake of oxygen is complete in 0.50 sec. iii. 0.50 sec is the time available in pulmonary capillary for exchange of and . iv. uptake in pulmonary capillary is usually perfusion limited, but partially diffusion limited also in diseased state.
Answer
B. Only ii and iii
58
Which of the following statement is/are true about long term adaptation to high attitudes ? i. Reduced arterial triggers adaptations mainly mediated by increase in hypoxia inducible factor I. ii. Kidney excrete alkaline urine. iii. Expression of oxidative enzymes in mitochondria. iv. Right ventricular hypertrophy increases pulmonary arterial pressure increasing perfusion to well ventilated regions of lung.
Answer
C. Only i, iii and iv
59
Which of the following statement is/are true about hypoxia ? i. In carbon monoxide poisoning arterial blood remains normal. ii. In hypoperfusion hypoxia and histotoxic hypoxia, administration of oxygen rich gas mixture is of very limited value. iii. In carbonmonoxide poisoning death results when 70-80% of circulating hemoglobin is converted to COHb. iv. Most common form of hypoxia seen clinically is hypoxic hypoxia.
Answer
B. All the above i, ii, iii and iv
60
Which of the following statement is/are true about pulmonary 'C' fiber receptor ? i. Impulses from these receptors pass up the vagus nerve in slowly conducting non myelinated fibers. ii. Stimulation results in rapid shallow breathing and even apnea. iii. Stimulation causes bronchodilation and decreases mucus secretion in airway. iv. Engorgement of pulmonary capillaries and increase in interstitial fluid volume of alveolar walls activate these receptors.
Answer
B. Only i, ii and iv
61
Which of the following statement is/are false about Forced Expiratory Volume ? i. FE is the volume of air that can be forcibly expired in first second. ii. The entire vital capacity can be forcibly expired in 3 seconds normally. iii. In normal individuals 90% of vital capacity can be forcibly expired is first second. iv. In fibrosis both FE and FVC decrease but FE is decreased less than FVC.
Answer
C. Only iii
62
Asphyxia is characterized by i. Acute hypoxia and hypercapnea develop together. ii. There is profound stimulation of respiration. iii. Catecholamine secretion increases and blood pH drops. iv. In 10% of drowning death results from asphyxia without water entry into lungs.
Answer
B. All the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
63
Which of the following statement is/are true about respiratory changes during exercise ? i. Arterial increases during most forms of exercise. ii. Arterial usually increases slightly although it may fall at very high work out levels. iii. Arterial pH falls for mild to moderate exercise. iv. On exercise increase in ventilation closely matches the increase in uptake and output.
Answer
D. Only ii and iv
64
Which of the following statement is/are true about peripheral chemoreceptors ? i. The sensitivity of peripheral chemoreceptors to changes in arterial begins around 500 mm of Hg. ii. Response of peripheral chemoreceptors to arterial is much less important than that of central chemoreceptors. iii. Inhibition of channels leads to depolarization of glomus cells. iv. In humans, the carotid but not aortic bodies respond to a fall in arterial .
Answer
B. Only i and iv
65
True statement about airway resistance is/are ? i. Major site of resistance to airflow is medium sized bronchi. ii. Tone of bronchial smooth muscles which is an important determinant of caliber of airways is under autonomic control. iii. The relationship between lung volume and airway resistance is linear. iv. Density and viscosity of gas that is breathed affects the pressure drop along the airway.
Answer
D. Only i, ii and iv
66
All are true regarding regulation of gastric secretion Except
Answer
B. Parietal cells express CCK1 (cholecystokinin type 1) receptor for gastrin
67
Pancreatic amylase is activated by
Answer
C. ion
68
Which of the following statement is/are false about parts of renal tubule ? i. Principal cells of collecting duct are large in number and have numerous mitochondria but intercalated cells of collecting duct are few and contain less number of mitochondria. ii. Pars recta of PCT has cuboidal cells with densly packed microvilli called 'brush border' and high metabolic activity. iii. The descending and ascending limb of loop of Henle have cells with very low level of metabolic activity. iv. Thick ascending limb of loop of Henle has cuboidal epithelial cells with numerous mitochondria and short microvilli but no brush border.
Answer
A. Only i and ii
69
Na-k- contrasporter is present in which part of renal tubule ?
Answer
B. Thick Ascending Limb of Loop of Henle
70
Which of the following statement is/are true about regulation of body temperature ? i. Free nerve endings act as specialized sensors for providing CNS with information about body's thermal condition. ii. Hypothalamic cold receptors greatly outnumber warmth receptors. iii. A one degree change in the core temperature produces a nine fold greater thermoeffector response. iv. Increasing local temperature upto 44-46°C causes warmth receptors to increase their steady firing rate.
Answer
C. Only i, iii and iv
71
Which of the following statement is/are correct regarding the synthesis of thyroid hormone ? i. In the brain the enzyme thyroid deiodinase contributes to the formation of ii. The thioureylenes promotes the iodination of monoiodotyrosine. iii. Large doses of iodide cause transient inhibition of organic binding of iodide.
Answer
A. Only i and iii
72
Following is/are true about insulin receptors Except i. The gene for the insulin receptor in human is located on chromosome 9. ii. All the insulin receptors are synthesized on a single mRNA. iii. They are found on many different cells in the body, including the cells in which insulin does not increase glucose uptake. iv. The β subunit of insulin receptor span the cell membrane
Answer
A. Only i
73
A 32 year old lady following labour developed severe postpartum haemorrhage and went into shock. After her recovery from shock she displays symptoms of hypopituitarism. Which of the following are expected in this patient. i. Pallor ii. Infertility iii. Cachexia iv. Low basal metabolic rate
Answer
C. Only i, ii and iv
74
A statement which is false regarding pheochromocytoma is i. Tumour caused by hyperplasia of either adrenal medullary tissue or extra adrenal chromaffin tissue. ii. Tumours can be benign or malignant. iii. Glucose intolerance is one of the clinical findings. iv. They make catecholamines, just like the normal medulla, except in an unregulated fashion.
Answer
D. None of the above
75
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Pseudohypoparathyroidism ? i. The key defect is an abnormality in a stimulatory β subunit of a heterotrimeric G protein. ii. The patient with this disorder have a high serum phosphate and a low serum calcium level. iii. There is increased circulating concentration of PHT. iv. They have an increased risk of hypothyroidism, as well as gonadal dysfunction in woman.
Answer
A. Only ii, iii and iv
76
Cryptorchidism may shows all the features except i. Degenerative changes in the tubular epithelium. ii. Abnormally formed testes. iii. Decreased secretion of testosterone. iv. Incidence of malignant tumours is less
Answer
D. Only iv
77
Which of the following is/are correct statement about Estrogens ? i. Naturally occurring estrogens are estrone, estriol and 17β-estradiol. ii. Biosynthesis depend on the enzyme aromatase. iii. Cause decreased secretion of angiotensinogen. iv. The "estrogen dominated" uterus is less sensitive to oxytocin.
Answer
C. Only i and ii
78
Effects of lower motor neuron lesion on erection and ejaculation are i. Reflexogenic erection ii. Psychogenic erection iii. Less impaired ejaculation iv. Retrograde ejaculation
Answer
D. Only ii and iii
79
Statement which is/are true about the birth control pills are i. Ethinyl estradiol and mestranol are approved for oral contraceptive use. ii. Progestins like gestodene and norgestimate have high androgenic effects. iii. Progestin only pills do not effectively inhibit ovulation as do the combination pills. iv. Combination pills are more ideal for nursing mothers than progestin only pills.
Answer
A. Only i and iii
80
Which of the following statement is/are true about hyperprolactinemia Except ? i. Chromophobe adenomas of the anterior pituitary can cause hyperprolactinemia. ii. 15-20% of women with secondary amenorrhea have elevated prolactin levels. iii. Hyperprolactinemia in men is associated with importance and hypogonadism and is irreversible even when prolactin secretion is reduced. iv. Most women with galactorrhea have high prolactin levels and a significant elevation is seen in more than 70% of the patients.
Answer
C. Only iii and iv
81
Statement which is/are false regarding Spermatogenesis. i. Spermatogonia have the normal diploid complement of 46 chromosome. ii. The secondary spermatocytes enter their second meiotic division slowly. iii. Groups of spermatogonia at comparable stages of development undergo mitosis simultaneoulsy.
Answer
B. Only ii
82
The complete development and the full function of seminiferous tubule mainly depend on
Answer
A. Androgen and FSH
83
Which of the following statement is/are true about the changes towards parturition ? i. Frequency of irregular uterine contractions decrease in the last month of pregnancy. ii. The increase in circulating estrogens produced by increased circulating DHEAS makes the uterus more excitable. iii. In early labor, the oxytocin concentration in the maternal plasma is not elevated from the pre labour value. iv. ACTH in the fetus probably triggers the onset of labor
Answer
C. Only ii, iii and iv
84
Features of Menopausal syndrome includes i. Vasomotor instability ii. Hot flushes and Night sweats iii. Headaches iv. Short term memory loss
Answer
D. All the above i, ii, iii and iv
85
Statement which is/are false about Chiari-Frommel syndrome. i. Persistence of galactorrhea and amenorrhea in a woman who do not nurse after delivery ii. May be associated with some genital atrophy iii. Persistent prolactin secretion iv. There is no secretion of LH and FSH
Answer
D. None of the above
86
Declarative memory include all the below Except i. Memory of the meaning of the experience. ii. Memory of causes of he experience. iii. Memory of relationship and speed of the ball to the racquet while playing tennis. iv. Memory of one's deductions that were left in the person's mind.
Answer
B. Only iii
87
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Thermoreceptors ? i. Innocuous cold receptors or cool receptors are on dendritic endings of A delta fibers and C fibers. ii. Innocuous warmth receptors are on dendritic endings of C fibers. iii. There are 4-10 times as many cold sensitive as heat sensitive spots on the skin. iv. The thershold for activation of warmth receptor is 30ºC and below 10ºC cold receptors are inactive
Answer
D. All the above i, ii, iii and iv
88
Which of the following is the definitive sign of Alzheimer disease ?
Answer
C. The presence of intracellular neurofibrillary tangles and extracellular neuritic plaques with a core of β-amyloid peptides
89
Nucleus tractus solitarii receives inputs from all the below Except i. Medullary raphe and Area postrema. ii. Periaqueductal gray and Parabrachial nucleus. iii. Facial nerve and Trigeminal nerve. iv. Forebrain nuclei and Reticular formation
Answer
C. Only iv
90
A 40 year old lady while riding as scooter met with a road traffic accident and was brought to the casualty. She was unconscious and there was severe bleeding from her nose. Her CT scan showed severe intracranial hemorrhage. The symptoms she might experience are depend on the area of the brain which is most affected. Regarding this situation which of the following statement is wrong ?
Answer
A. Damage to the angular gyrus in the categorical hemisphere cause nonfluent aphasia
91
Which of the following statement is/are true about plain suppression system ? i. Electrical stimulation in the periaqueductal gray area can supress many strong pain signals entering by way of the dorsal spinal roots. ii. Electrical stimulation in the raphe magnus nucleus can supress many strong pain signals entering by way of the dorsal spinal roots. iii. Stimulation of the periventricular nuclei in the hypothalamus lying adjacent to the third ventricle can supress pain. iv. Stimulation of medial forebrain bundle in the hypothalamus can supress pain.
Answer
D. All the above i, ii, iii and iv
92
Examples of descending cortical control of autonomic output includes all the below Except
Answer
D. Hypercapnia : cause increase in the rate of respiration
93
Which of the following statement is/are false about endocochlear potential ? i. An electrical potential of about + 40 millivolts exist all the time between endolymph and perilymph. ii.Positivity is inside the scala media and negativity is outside. iii. It is generated by continual secretion of positive potassium ions into the outiside of scala media by the striae vascularis. iv. The importance of the endocochlear potentail is that the tops of the hair cells project through the reticular lamina and are bathed by the endolymph of scala media, whereas perilymph bathes the lower bodies of hair cells.
Answer
C. Only i and iii
94
Which of the following is/are correct statement about Olfactory receptors ? i. Dendrites of each nueron terminates in a knob containing 12 to 20 cilia. ii. The cilia are unmyelinated process of about 5-10 μm in length. iii. Human olfactory epithelium contains 10-15 million of bipolar olfactory sensory neurons. iv. The cilia contains specific receptors for odorants.
Answer
C. Only ii and iv
95
A 45 year old man who suffering from fever and sore throat was found positive for Covid-19 RT-PCR blood test. He also complained about diminished taste sensation. Which of following statement is/are wrong about taste sensation ? i. Dysgeusia causes a metallic, salty, foul or rancid taste. ii. Taste disturbances can also occur under conditions in which serotonin and norepinephrine levels are altered. iii. Administration of a 5-HT reuptake inhibitor reduces bitter taste and sour thresholds. iv. Administration of a norepinephrine reuptake inhibitor reduces sensitivity to sweet and bitter taste.
Answer
B. Only iii and iv
96
Cognential myasthenic syndrome can affect neuromuscular transmission by following ways. i. AchE deficiency. ii. Abnormal presynaptic release of Ach. iii. Defective AchR function. iv. Mutation in the subunit of the human AchR.
Answer
A. Only i, ii and iii
97
Which of the following is/are correct statement about striations of skeletal muscles ? i. In striated muscle, thin filaments are 5 to 8 nm in diameter and 1 μm in length. ii. Thin filaments are tethered together at both ends where they project from a dense disk known as the Z disk. iii. Thick filaments are 10 nm indiameter and 1.6 μm in length. iv. Z disk is visible as a dark perpendicular line at the center of the I band.
Answer
C. Only i, iii and iv
98
Following statement is/are wrong about the factors determining Osmotic pressure. i. The number of particles per unit volume of fluid. ii. The mass of the particles per unit volume of fluid. iii. The large particles, which have greater mass than small particles, move at higher velocities. iv. Molar concentration is the solution.
Answer
A. Only ii and iii
99
The Donnan effect on the distribution of ions has following effects in the body. i. Because of charged proteins in plasma, there are more osmotically active particles in the plasma than in cells. ii. Normal cell volume and pressure depend on Na, K ATPase. iii. Because at equilibrium the distribution of permanent ions across the membrane is asymmetric, an electrical difference exist across the membrane whose magnitude can be determined by the Nerst equation. iv. Because there are more proteins in the plasma than in interstitial fluid, there is a Donnam effect on ion movement across the capillary wall.
Answer
B. Only ii, iii and iv
100
Which of the following is/are correct statement about treatment of renal failure by dialysis ? i. The maximum rate of solute transfer occurs in the middle of dialysis. ii. The total amount of blood in the artificial kidney at any one time is usually less than 500 ml. iii. Hydrostatic pressure shouldn't be increased, so that mass transfer of solutes and water will not occur. iv. If the concentration of a substance is greater in the plasma than in the dialysing fluid, there will be a net transfer of the substance from the plasma into the dialysing fluid.
Answer
A. Only ii and iv
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