| Post Name | Assistant Professor Surgery - Government Homoeopathic Medical Colleges |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 060/2023/OL |
| Category Code | 053/2020 |
| Date of Test | 4 June 2023 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
All are colour categories in TRIAGE except
Answer
B. Blue
2
Complications of endotracheal intubation includes all except
Answer
D. Delayed esophageal stenosis
3
All are true about fresh frozen plasma except
Answer
B. Can be used to correct anaemia
4
Shock is defined as
Answer
A. A systemic state of low tissue perfusion which is inadequate for normal cellular respiration
5
The strategies of damage control resuscitation are all except
Answer
C. Colloids and crystalloids to replace lost vascular volume
6
The ABO system of blood grouping was discovered by
Answer
A. Karl Landsteiner
7
Types of shock include all except
Answer
B. Nephrogenic shock
8
Which is true about distributive shock
Answer
A. High cardiac output and low vascular resistance
9
Which is false about reactionary haemorrhage?
Answer
C. is due to sloughing of the wall of a vessel
10
Trauma Triad of death include all except
Answer
D. Decreased cardiac output
11
Indications for blood transfusion include all except
Answer
D. Distributive shock
12
Which of the following is not a complication of blood transfusion?
Answer
B. Hepatitis A infection
13
Following are true about healing by primary intention except
Answer
A. Myofibroblasts are the hallmark cells
14
All are true about a closed degloving injury except
Answer
B. neurovascular structures, tendon or bone exposed
15
Which of the following is a late sign in compartment syndrome
Answer
A. Absence of pulses distally
16
The pathogens responsible for necrotising fascitis includes all except
Answer
D. Streptococcus intermedius
17
Which is false about contractures?
Answer
C. Can be treated with intralesional steroids
18
Which of the following is an example of clear surgery?
Answer
A. Thyroidectomy
19
Abscess - all are true except
Answer
D. Antibiotics are the treatment of choice
20
Guided aspiration of an Abscess without the need for surgical intervention is usually done with the help of
Answer
A. Ultrasound scanning
21
A pyogenic bacterial infection nail fold is known as
Answer
B. Paronychia
22
Treatment of Paronychia
Answer
A. Stripping back the cuticle and lateral nail folds from surface of nail
23
Airway management include all except
Answer
D. insertion of intercostal tube
24
What does CPCR stands for?
Answer
A. Cardio Pulmonary Cerebral Resuscitation
25
Universal distress signal characterising an obstructed airway in a conscious adult is
Answer
C. Victims hand at his throat
26
Open pneumothorax all are true except
Answer
C. the mediastinum is displaced to the opposite side
27
The triangle of safety for chest tube insertion is bounded inferiorly by
Answer
D. Horizontal line at the level of nipple in male
28
FAST stands for
Answer
A. Focused Abdominal Sonography in Trauma
29
What is the purpose of FAST in trauma management?
Answer
B. To identify potential sources of internal bleeding
30
TRIAGE means
Answer
A. To sort
31
Which among the following statements regarding DVT prophylaxis is False?
Answer
D. Addition of mechanical prophylaxis in the high risk group of developing PE patients will give added benefit.
32
Which among the following is 'NOT' a risk factor for developing venous thrombosis?
Answer
A. Increased antithrombin III
33
Which is true regarding venous thrombosis?
Answer
D. Varicose vein is a risk factor for DVT.
34
Regarding diagnosis of DVT. Which is false?
Answer
C. Raised D. Dimer is highly specific for DVT.
35
Duration of oral anticoagulation for DVT patients should be atleast
Answer
B. 3 months
36
Percentage of TBSA in burns above which fluid resuscitation is appropriate for any child.
Answer
B. 10%
37
Fluid used for resuscitation in burns as per original MUIR and Barclay formula.
Answer
D. FFP
38
Which is true regarding skin grafts?
Answer
B. Contraction of the graft depends on the dermis attached.
39
Which is true regarding full thickness graft?
Answer
B. Preferred in small areas like eyelids and face.
40
Which is false regarding inhalation burns?
Answer
D. Early elective intubation is contraindicated.
41
Cystadenoma lymphomatosum affects
Answer
D. Parotid gland
42
The system for reporting salivary gland FNAC is
Answer
D. Milan system
43
Conley's pointer is an anatomical landmark for the identification of
Answer
C. Facial nerve
44
All are true except -
Answer
C. Salivary duct carcinoma is a low grade ductal carcinoma.
45
Warthin's tumor commonly affects -
Answer
B. Inferior pole of parotid
46
Treatment of choice in Warthin's tumor -
Answer
C. Adequate parotidectomy
47
Which is false for mucoepidermoid carcinoma?
Answer
C. High grade Mucoepidermoid carcinoma are slow growing tumor.
48
Which salivary gland Tumor has high predilection for perineural invasion?
Answer
A. Adenoid Cystic carcinoma
49
Immunohistochemically which is positive in Adenoid Cystic carcinoma?
Answer
A. C-KIT, P63, SMA
50
False About Salivary gland Neoplasm
Answer
C. There is a strong association of smoking with Pleomorphic Adenoma.
51
Investigation for thyroid disease include:
Answer
D. All of the above
52
Which one is the false statement?
Answer
B. Thy 1c - diagnostic
53
In classification of thyroid swelling, which one is the false group:
Answer
C. Infective goitre
54
All are biopsies in thyroid except:
Answer
D. Incisional biopsy
55
Indication for thyroid surgery:
Answer
D. All of the above
56
In clinical types of hyperthyroidism, which one is the false group;
Answer
D. Drug induced
57
Choice of antithyroid treatment are all except:
Answer
C. Radiotherapy
58
Classification of thyroid malignancies include:
Answer
D. All of the above
59
Complications of thyroidectomy include;
Answer
D. All of the above
60
Follow up of differentiated thyroid carcinoma is by all except;
Answer
D. CT Neck
61
Normal TSH level in serum is :
Answer
C. 0.3-3.3 mIU/L
62
Ultrasound features of malignancy in thyroid swelling are all except:
Answer
C. Decreased vascularity
63
Pathological features of Papillary Thyroid carcinoma are:
Answer
D. All of the above
64
Oxyphil cells/Askanazy cells are characteristic of:
Answer
C. Hurthle cell neoplasm
65
Radioisotopes in relation to thyroid disease are all except:
Answer
D. Co-55
66
Triple assessment in breast include all except:
Answer
D. CT assessment
67
Dose of radiation in mammogray:
Answer
A. 0.1 cGy
68
Common organism producing acute mastitis:
Answer
A. Staph aureus
69
Treatment of EBC:
Answer
A. BCS
70
Treatment of LABC:
Answer
A. NACT + MRM
71
Treatment of advanced Ca breast:
Answer
A. Palliative chemotherapy
72
All are being breast diseases except;
Answer
C. Pagets disease of nipple
73
Surgeries for operable ca breast:
Answer
A. MRM
74
What is oncoplastic breast surgery:
Answer
D. All of the above
75
Treatment of male Ca breast:
Answer
D. All of the above
76
Surgically, classification of axillary lymph nodes into three levels are based on which anatomic structure:
Answer
C. Pectoralis minor
77
Fibroadenoma occurs due to a disorder in:
Answer
A. Lobular development
78
Skin changes in relation to Ca Breast are all except:
Answer
D. Tethering
79
Which among the following drugs is added to the adjuvant treatment regimen in an Early breast Carcinoma which is ER/PR positive:
Answer
B. Tamoxifen
80
Familial breast cancer is seen in:
Answer
D. All of the above
81
Palpation of the left iliac fossa producing pain in the right iliac fossa is called:
Answer
B. Rovsing's sign
82
Early diarrhea is a feature of what type of appendicitis based on its position?
Answer
D. Pelvic
83
What is the investigation of choice to diagnose Acute Appendicitis?
Answer
C. CECT Abdomen
84
All are criteria for stopping conservative treatment of an Appendicular mass except:
Answer
B. Increased urinary output
85
All statements are true with regards to Appendicitis in Pregnancy except:
Answer
A. Appendicitis is more common in pregnant women than in non-pregnant women
86
All are complications of inguinal hernia except:
Answer
A. Occult hernia
87
The following types of inguinal hernia are prone for strangulation except:
Answer
C. A direct hernia with a large neck
88
The ideal management of suspected reactionary hemorrhage following surgery for hemorrhoids is:
Answer
A. Re-examination under Anaesthesia in the operating room
89
Internal hemorrhoids associated with prolapse of a mass per anum but reduces spontaneously is:
Answer
B. Second degree hemorrhoids
90
All are indications for Hemorrhoidectomy except:
Answer
C. Hemorrhoids with chronic liver disease
91
Fistula in Ano may be associated with the following diseases except:
Answer
A. Ulcerative Colitis
92
The most common type of Fistulae in Ano based on Park's classification is:
Answer
C. Inter-sphincteric
93
The "gold standard" for imaging in Fistula in Ano is:
Answer
B. MRI
94
The following statements regarding Fistula in Ano are true except:
Answer
C. The most important determinant of function after fistulotomy is the amount of sphincter muscle divided
95
The Ayurvedic method used in India for management of Fistula in Ano called as ksharasootra closely resembles treatment by:
Answer
D. Cutting Setons
96
Palpation of the right subcostal region in patients with Acute Cholecystitis producing an "arrest of breathing" is called as:
Answer
A. Murphy's sign
97
All are true with regards to HIDA (Hepatobiliaryiminodiacetic acid) scan in Cholecystitis except:
Answer
A. Visualization of the gallbladder is suggestive of acute cholecystitis
98
The first imaging investigation of choice to be done in Acute Cholecystitis is:
Answer
C. USG Abdomen
99
A 45 year old woman with a BMI of 32 and diabetic since 3 years presented with severe pain in the right hypochondrium since 1 day. She was diagnosed to have Acute calculouscholecystitits. What is the treatment of choice in her?
Answer
D. Emergency Laparoscopic Cholecystectomy
100
All are true with regards to use of antibiotics in management of Acute Cholecystitis except:
Answer
B. The concentration of antibiotic in the bile is more important than its concentration in the serum
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