| Post Name | Assistant Public Prosecutor Gr-II-Kerala State Assistant Public Prosecutors Service |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 001/2019 |
| Category Code | 326/2017 |
| Date of Test | 22 January 2019 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Ayyankali met Sreenarayana guru at __________.
Answer
B. Balaramapuram
2
Who translated the speeches of Kamaraj from Tamil to Malayalam whenever he visited
Malabar ?
Answer
D. A.V. Kuttimalu Amma
3
Who founded ‘Kallyanadayini Sabha’ at Aanapuzha ?
Answer
A. Pandit K.P. Karuppan
4
‘Vicharaviplavam’ is the work of __________.
Answer
C. Kuttipuzha Krishnapillai
5
William Tobias Ringeltaube is related to __________.
Answer
A. London Mission Society
6
The state bird of Rajasthan :
Answer
C. The great Indian Bustard
7
Who won the Nobel Prize for literature in 2017 ?
Answer
A. Kazuo Ishiguro
8
Saina Nehwal is related to :
Answer
D. Badminton
9
Who introduced the idea ‘Late Capitalism’ ?
Answer
A. Earnest Mandel
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
D. having one correct answer.
Choose the correct answer and darken the bubble corresponding to the question number using
Blue or Black Ball Point Pen in the OMR Answer Sheet.
11
Some of the questions ___________ too difficult to comprehend.
Answer
A. were
12
A good teacher should be well acquainted __________ his/her subject.
Answer
D. with
13
I saw __________ one-eyed man at the bus-stop, today.
Answer
C. a
14
He entered the room __________ and took his seat.
Answer
B. quietly
15
The majority of the students admitted during this academic year are __________.
Answer
B. industrious
16
Edison said that he __________ try again to establish his finding.
Answer
C. would
17
Vineetha is __________ than her sisters, Renu and Seema.
Answer
A. older
18
I am a grammarian, __________.
Answer
C. aren’t I
19
Which is the one-word substitute for the expression, ‘a government by a ruler who has
unlimited power’?
Answer
D. autocracy
20
‘To be in the red’ means __________.
Answer
A. to be in debt
21
‘Right to education’ was inserted in Part III of the constitution by :
Answer
A. 86th Amendment Act 2002
22
The right guaranteed under Article 32 can be suspended :
Answer
D. When the proclamation of emergency is in operation
23
The doctrine of ‘double jeopardy’ in Article 20(2) means :
Answer
D. No one can be tried and punished more than once for the same offence
24
Article 13(2) :
Answer
B. states that state shall not make any law which takes away or abridges the fundamental
rights
25
Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to :
Answer
D. All persons natural and artificial
26
The feature ‘power of judicial review’ is borrowed from which of the following country ?
Answer
B. USA
27
The term of President expires :
Answer
A. Five years from the date of entering to the office
28
The power to dissolve the Loksabha is vested with :
Answer
C. President of India on the advise of Prime Minister
29
The power of the President to issue an ordinance is :
Answer
B. legislative power
30
Treaty making power is conferred upon :
Answer
D. President of India but is subject to ratification by the Parliament
31
Article 361 of the constitution of India guarantees the privilege to the President of India that,
he shall :
Answer
C. not answerable to any court proceedings during the term of his office
32
Representation of House of people is based on :
Answer
A. population
33
An Ordinary Bill becomes a law :
Answer
A. when it is passed by both the Houses and gets the assent of the President
34
Article 155-156 of the Indian constitution deal with :
Answer
A. President’s power to appoint and dismiss Governor
35
The maximum interval between the two sessions of each House of the Parliament :
Answer
B. Six months
36
Minimum age of a person to become a member of a Legislative Council :
Answer
C. 30 yrs
37
While the proclamation of emergency is in operation the State Government :
Answer
A. cannot legislate
38
Part XVIII of the Indian Constitution provides for the declaration of :
Answer
D. All the above
39
The First Constitutional Amendment was challenged in :
Answer
A. Sankari Prasad v. Union of India
40
The provision for amending the constitution is given in :
Answer
C. Part XX Article 368
41
Complaint as provided under Section 2(
Answer
B. can be to a Magistrate only
42
In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right :
Answer
C. by the police officer or the court
43
Offences other than those mentioned in Section 320 of Cr. P.C. are :
Answer
D. Not Compoundable
44
The issuance of summons to a person to produce a document under Section 91 of Cr. P.C.
is :
Answer
C. discretionary
45
The investigating officer under Section 160 Cr. P.C. cannot require the attendance of a male
at a place other than the place of his residence, who is :
Answer
A. Under the age of 15 yrs
46
A declaration of forfeiture under Section 95 of Cr. P.C. can be set aside by :
Answer
A. High court
47
A person can be summoned as a witness under Section 160 of Cr. P.C. by :
Answer
B. Investigating officer
48
A refusal to answer questions put to a witness under Section 161 Cr. P.C. is an offence
under :
Answer
B. Section 179 I.P.C.
49
The Magistrate records the confession of an accused or a statement of a witness during
investigation under :
Answer
A. Section 164 Cr. P.C.
50
FIR given by the accused can be used :
Answer
C. as an admission if the same is non confessional
51
Section 162 Cr. P.C. prohibits a statement from being used in evidence made in the course
of :
Answer
B. investigation
52
Under Section 167 Cr. P.C. the longest period for which an accused can be remanded to
police custody is :
Answer
A. fifteen days
53
A detention of the accused for a total period of 90 days during investigation can be ordered
by the Magistrate, in cases where the offence committed is :
Answer
D. all the above
54
Section 125 Cr. P.C. is applicable to :
Answer
D. All persons belonging to all religions
55
The Muslim women (Protection of Rights on Divorce) Act, 1986 deals with :
Answer
B. Claim of maintenance by a Muslim divorced woman
56
Amount of maintenance under Section 125 Cr. P.C. is :
Answer
D. without any limit
57
It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate, within 24 hours of the
arrest, under :
Answer
B. Section 57 Cr. P.C.
58
Special summons under Section 206 of Cr. P.C. can be issued by :
Answer
B. Magistrate only
59
Penalty under surety bond :
Answer
C. Can be remitted in part only
60
Under Section 315 Cr. P.C. :
Answer
C. an accused can be called as a witness only on his own request in writing
61
Relevancy is :
Answer
A. question of law and can be raised at any time
62
Admissions by agents are :
Answer
D. both
63
Plea of alibi is governed by :
Answer
C. Section 11
64
A dying declaration to be admissible :
Answer
D. all the above
65
Secondary evidence of a document is admissible as a substitute for :
Answer
A. admissible primary evidence
66
For presumption of death under Section 108 of the Evidence Act, the person is shown to be
not heard for a period of :
Answer
B. 7 yrs
67
The doctrine of estoppel is
Answer
Question Cancelled
68
An accomplice is a person :
Answer
C. Who participates in the commission of the crime for which the accused has been charged
69
Leading questions can be asked during :
Answer
C. Cross examination
70
The presumption under Section 41 of the Evidence Act is
Answer
B. Irrebuttable presumption of law
71
Confession of one accused is admissible against co-accused :
Answer
A. If they are tried jointly for the same offences
72
Presumption as to the digital signature of the electronic record in proper custody arises if the
electronic record produced is :
Answer
D. 5 yrs old
73
In case of will, the period of thirty years shall run :
Answer
A. from the date of the will
74
Maxim ‘omnia proesumuntur rite esse acta’ means :
Answer
A. all acts are presumed to be rightly done
75
A dumb person is a competent witness as provided under :
Answer
C. Section 119 of Evidence Act
76
Section 121 of the Evidence Act provides for privilege in respect of :
Answer
B. judges and magistrates
77
The evidence unearthed by a sniffer dog falls under :
Answer
D. scientific evidence
78
Opinions of experts are relevant :
Answer
A. Under Section 45 Evidence Act
79
Presumptions under the law of evidence are :
Answer
C. Both
80
Section 13 Evidence Act applies to :
Answer
C. both corporal and incorporal rights
81
How many types of punishments have been prescribed under the Indian Penal Code ?
Answer
C. Five
82
Section 73 IPC provides for the maximum limit of solitary confinement to be :
Answer
D. Three months
83
General exceptions are contained in :
Answer
B. Chapter IV of IPC
84
The maxim ‘ignorantia juris non excusat’ means :
Answer
A. Ignorance of law is no excuse
85
‘Infancy’ as an exception has been provided :
Answer
B. Section 82
86
The doctrine volenti non fit injuria is contained in :
Answer
A. Section 87
87
Abettor is a person :
Answer
B. Who instigates the commission of offence
88
For an ‘unlawful assembly’ under Section 141 IPC, the minimum number of persons required
is :
Answer
A. five
89
For an ‘affray’ under Section 159 IPC the minimum number of persons required is :
Answer
A. two
90
Culpable homicide has been defined under :
Answer
A. Section 299
91
During a scuffle between A and B, A gave a blow on the face of B and consequently two
teeth of B' were broken. In these circumstances A has committed an offence of causing :
Answer
C. grievous hurt
92
Robbery becomes dacoity when committed conjointly by :
Answer
C. five persons or more
93
Immovable property can be the subject matter of :
Answer
B. extortion
94
The essential ingredients of crime are :
Answer
A. actus reus and mens rea
95
Section 511 does not apply in case of :
Answer
B. Attempt of murder
96
Z dies in possession of some money and other assets. His servant P misappropriates it before
the money comes into the possession of any person entitled to such possession.
X has committed an offence of :
Answer
B. Section 404
97
A knows that B is suffering from a disease and he gives a blow on his head likely to cause
death. As a result B dies. A is :
Answer
B. guilty of murder
98
X ordered Y to beat Z. Y refuses. Now :
Answer
A. X has committed abetment and Y has committed no offence
99
Kidnapping from the lawful guardianship under Section 361 IPC can be :
Answer
D. all the above
100
X gave poisoned halwa to Y with an intenstion to kill him. Y kept it aside and Z who came
there picked it up and ate it. Z died.
Answer
A. X is guilty of murder of Z
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