| Post Name | ASSISTANT SURGEON / CASUALITY MEDICAL OFFICER - HEALTH SERVICES |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 027/2020 |
| Category Code | 305/2019 |
| Date of Test | 12 September 2020 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following muscle is supplied by Anterior Interosseous Nerve ?
Answer
A. Flexor pollicis longus
2
From which of the following pharyngeal pouches the thymus develops ?
Answer
C. Third
3
The structure passing through the gap between superior and middle constrictor is
Answer
A. Glossopharyngeal nerve
4
Trapeziometacarpal joint belongs to which of the following types ?
Answer
B. Saddle
5
In which of the following tissues insulin is required for glucose uptake ?
Answer
B. Adipose tissue
6
Which of the following enzymes is dependent on pyridoxal phosphate ?
Answer
B. Ornithine decarboxylase
7
Enzyme activated by insulin is
Answer
A. Lipoprotein lipase
8
High anion gap metabolic acidosis can occur in the following conditions except
Answer
D. Renal tubular acidosis
9
A 50 year old male was admitted in the ward with hemiplegia of left side which started
as weakness. There is areflexia of upper limb and exaggerated reflexes on lower
limb on left side. The most probable site of lesion could be
Answer
B. a single lesion at C5-6 level
10
Select the correct statement regarding hypothyroidism
Answer
C. Reaction time of stretch reflexes is prolonged
11
Diarrhoeal symptoms in cholera epidemic is due to which of the following changes
in intestinal transport ?
Answer
D. Reduction in NaCl absorption
12
All of the following shift the oxygen dissociation curve to the left except
Answer
C. Increase in 2, 3 DPG
13
Cooling of the body after death is known as
Answer
C. Algor mortis
14
Tyre tread mark is an example of the following type of abrasion
Answer
D. Imprint
15
Commonest cause for impotence in males
Answer
B. Vascular disease
16
Section 174 CrPC deals with
Answer
C. Inquest
17
Western blotting is used for separation of
Answer
C. Proteins
18
Scoring system followed for diagnosis of bacterial vaginosis is
Answer
C. Nugents score
19
Transduction, transformation and conjugation are different methods of
Answer
A. Gene transfer in bacteria
20
The infection transmitted by mite is
Answer
D. Scrub typhus
21
Anticoagulant of choice for osmotic fragility test is
Answer
C. Heparin
22
The histologic type of carcinoma breast with bad prognosis is
Answer
A. Infiltrating duct carcinoma NOS
23
The microscopic features of sarcoidosis include all except
Answer
B. Areas of caseation necrosis
24
Minimal change primary glomerular disease is characterized by
Answer
B. Effacement of the foot processes of the padocytes
25
Which of the following drugs is not associated with weight gain ?
Answer
D. Metformin
26
Exenatide is an example of
Answer
A. A GLP-1 analogue
27
The anti tubercular drug associated with optic neuritis is
Answer
C. Ethambutol
28
Raltegravir is
Answer
B. An integrase inhibitor
29
“Prevalence of low birth weight” is an indicator of which type of “Indicator of
Health” ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
30
Effective vaccine is available against all the following diseases except
Answer
C. Leishmaniasis
31
“Hidden Hunger” refers to
Answer
D. Micronutrient deficiency in communities
32
Aedes mosquitoes transmit all of the following diseases except
Answer
D. West Nile fever
33
Which one of the following is the strongest study design ?
Answer
C. Randomized controlled trial
34
Which one of the following method is used to estimate chlorine demand of water ?
Answer
C. Horrock’s apparatus
35
Which protein is considered as reference protein ?
Answer
A. Chicken egg
36
The denominator for maternal mortality ratio is
Answer
D. Total number of live births
37
HLA associated with uveitis of Behcet’s disease is
Answer
C. HLAB 51
38
All are signs of Trachoma except
Answer
B. Horner Trantas spots
39
Corneal endothelial cell count is measured by using
Answer
C. Specular microscope
40
All are the features of Central Retinal artery occlusion except
Answer
C. Massive retinal haemorrhages
41
Multiple perforation of tympanic membrane seen in
Answer
A. Tubercular Otitis Media
42
Ostmann’s Pad of fat is related to
Answer
B. Eustachian Tube
43
Recruitment test is positive in
Answer
C. Meniere’s Disease
44
Rhinitis Medicamentosa is caused by prolonged use of
Answer
A. Decongestant Nasal Drops
45
Which is not a premalignant lesion of oral cavity ?
Answer
D. Ranula
46
Mucocoele is most common in which sinus ?
Answer
D. Frontal
47
Tear drop sign in X-ray is seen in
Answer
C. Blow out fracture orbit
48
Most common symptom of nasopharyngeal malignancy is
Answer
D. Cervical lymph node enlargement
49
Ludwig’s angina is infection of which space ?
Answer
B. Submandibular space
50
Most common site of lodgement of foreign body in throat is
Answer
C. Cricopharynx
51
A simple measure to assess central obesity is
Answer
B. Waist hip ratio
52
All are diagnostic criteria of Diabetes Mellitus except
Answer
B. Post prandial blood sugar >180 mg%
53
Which test is best preferred to screen for Vitamin D deficiency ?
Answer
C. 25 hydroxycholecaIciferol
54
Polyvalent anti snake venom in India is ineffective for envenomation with
Answer
C. Hump nosed pit viper
55
Antidote for paracetamol poisoning is
Answer
A. N acetylcysteine
56
Which is not a feature of progressive supranuclear palsy ?
Answer
D. Good response to antiparkinsonian drugs
57
Which is not an extra articular manifestation of Ankylosing spondylitis ?
Answer
D. Aortic stenosis
58
Anticentromere antibodies are positive in
Answer
Question Cancelled
59
Not a precipitating cause of hepatic encephalopathy
Answer
C. Hyperkalemia
60
Not a nonspecific biochemical abnormality in hyperthyroidism
Answer
D. Hypocalcemia
61
All are non neurological symptoms of Parkinsons disease except
Answer
B. Hypohidrosis
62
Stimulus control therapy is related to
Answer
A. lnsomnia
63
Non arteritic anterior ischaemic optic neuropathy is associated with
Answer
D. Sildenafil
64
Lithium when combined with ECT can cause all except
Answer
C. Neuroleptic malignant syndrome
65
The final active metabolite of diazepam is
Answer
D. Oxazepam
66
Name the test to assess feto-maternal hemorrhage.
Answer
C. Kleihauer-Betke Test
67
Human Placental Lactogen is produced by
Answer
A. Syncitiotrophoblast
68
First manifestation of Magnesium Sulphate toxicity
Answer
Question Cancelled
69
Clue cells are seen in
Answer
D. Bacterial vaginosis
70
Nikolsky sign is positive in
Answer
D. Staphylococcal Scalded Skin Syndrome
71
Impetigo herpetiformis is
Answer
A. Generalised pustular psoriasis in pregnancy
72
An adult male in the 5th decade, when presents with diffuse bronze pigmentation over
skin, hepatic cirrhosis, diabetes, cardiac failure, arthritis, impotence, he is suffering
from
Answer
D. Haemochromatosis
73
Necrolytic migratory erythema is strongly associated with
Answer
A. Alpha cell tumour of pancreas
74
Regarding sodium metabolism, the following is not true.
Answer
C. Following trauma there is a variable period of increased sodium excretion
75
Regarding allograft rejection all are true except
Answer
Question Cancelled
76
Most common site of carcinoma lip is
Answer
B. Vermilion border of lower lip
77
The sign of esophageal atresia
Answer
Question Cancelled
78
Histamine is produced in the stomach by which of the following cells ?
Answer
D. Enterochromaffin like cell (ECL-Cell)
79
‘Sunburst’ periosteal reaction is most commonly seen in
Answer
A. Osteosarcoma
80
A characteristic narrowing and calcification of the intervertebral discs in radiographs
is seen in
Answer
B. Ochronosis
81
‘Finsterer’s sign’ is pathognomonic of
Answer
B. Keinbocks disease
82
“Nutcracker fracture” is a fracture of
Answer
D. Cuboid
83
Mention a scale to assess spasticity
Answer
B. Ashworth scale
84
Botulinum toxin acts at the _____________ level.
Answer
D. Neuromuscular junction level
85
Reflex level center for the bladder is situated in the __________ area of the brain.
Answer
A. Pons
86
Normal Ankle-brachial Index is
Answer
C. 0.8 – 1.3
87
Which of the following are the genes found to be involved in colorectal cancer ?
Answer
C. MLH1 gene on chromosome 3
88
In small cell carcinoma of the lung the usual chemotherapy is
Answer
B. Cisplatin + Etoposide
89
Which of the following drug is not an Aromatase inhibitor ?
Answer
A. Tamoxifen
90
What is the half-life of Cobalt 60 ?
Answer
D. 5.3 years
91
What is the average Photon energy of the most commonly used Brachytherapy
source Iridium 192 (Ir192) ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
92
Which of the following inhalational anaesthetic agents have the lowest blood gas
partition co-efficient ?
Answer
D. Nitrous oxide
93
Normal anion gap metabolic acidosis occur in
Answer
C. Intestinal obstruction
94
An ASAI patient in post operative recovery room shows pulse oximeter saturation
reading of 74%. The corresponding arterial oxygen tension would be
Answer
B. 40 mmHg
95
The most effective system for spontaneous respiration
Answer
A. Mapleson A
96
Features of vitamin D deficiency rickets include all of the following except
Answer
A. Bitot spots
97
All of the following statements regarding cyclic vomiting are true except
Answer
D. It is associated with nystagmus
98
The most important extramedullary site of relapse in childhood all is
Answer
B. Central nervous system
99
A 7 day old male infant presents with a seizure. Serum glucose is 17 mg/dL.
Examination is normal with the exception of jaundice and microphallus. The most
likely diagnosis is
Answer
C. Congenital hypopituitarism
100
Causes of macrocephaly include all of the following except
Answer
A. Congenital CMV infection
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