| Post Name | Assistant Surgeon/ Casuality Medical Officer - Health Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 027/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 018/2024, 338/2024 |
| Date of Test | 25 March 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The wrong statement regarding dengue fever :
Answer
B. Prophylactic platelet transfusion may be considered for counts without bleed
2
Based on the syndromic management of STI by NACO, color coded kit and targeted syndrome are given. Find the correct match.
Answer
C. Brown - Anorectal discharge
3
36-year-old female present to the casualty with acute onset dyspnea, chest tightness and feeling of impending doom. She gives a history of sea food intake couple of hours back. On examination you noticed swelling of lips with urticaria. Her BP was 80/50 mmHg spo2 70% in room air with PR 46/min. On auscultation you hear bilateral wheeze. What is the next best step in the management?
Answer
A. Give epinephrine 0.3 to 0.5 mg IM in the mid-outer thigh
4
All are true regarding treatment of hemophilia except
Answer
C. DDAVP is used for the treatment of severe hemophilia A
5
Which of the following is not used for the treatment of Hepatitis C in India?
Answer
A. Entecavir
6
A 24-year-old female was admitted with alleged history of ingestion of 30 tablets of 10 mg Amlodipine. Which of the following therapeutic options are ineļ¬ective in this patient?
Answer
D. Hemodialysis
7
Choose the correct option based on the statements below : i. ASV available in India is polyvalent freeze-dried with a shelf life of 5 years ii. Dose of ASV in pregnancy is same as for non-pregnant adults iii. In case of known drug allergy ASV test dose should be administered iv. Purely local swelling, even if accompanied by a bite mark, is not a ground for administering ASV.
Answer
D. Only i, ii, iv are correct
8
All the drugs have mortality beneļ¬t and reduce further heart failure hospitalization in HFrEF except :
Answer
D. Digoxin
9
Wrong statement regarding life style modiļ¬cation to management of systemic hypertension is :
Answer
B. Dietary sale reduction <6 g NaCl/d with low potassium diet
10
All are true regarding Ulcerative Colitis (UC) except :
Answer
D. Oral contraceptive use is associated with an increased risk of UC
11
Management of hepatic encephalopathy includes (i) Rifaximin (ii) Lactulose bowel wash (iii) Portosystemic shunt
Answer
B. Only (i & ii)
12
Which of the following statements is/are correct about haemoglobinopathies? (i) Polymerisation of abnormal hemoglobin to produce hemolysis occurs in thalassemia (ii) Clinical features of sickle cell disease include chronic renal failure, stroke, retinopathy (iii) Daily folic acid supplementation and allogeneic stem cell transplant from HLA matched sibling are used in treatment of both thalassemia and sickle cell disease
Answer
A. Only (ii & iii)
13
Which of the following statements is correct about ARDS?
Answer
C. Prone positioning is used in management
14
Which of the following statements is/are correct about drug induced renal disease? (i) NSAIDs increase aļ¬erent arteriolar resistance (ii) ACE inhibitors increase eļ¬erent arteriolar resistance (iii) Radiographic contrast media is directly toxic to proximal tubular cells
Answer
D. Only (i & iii)
15
Which of the following statements is correct about Guillain Barre Syndrome?
Answer
B. Prominent bladder dysfunction does not occur early
16
Which of the following statements is/are correct about falls in old age?
Answer
B. Use of a walking aid is a risk factor for falls
17
A 30 year old male presented with recurrent oral ulcers at least three times in 12 months, uveitis, recurrent genital ulcers and erythema nodosum. The test for diagnosis is
Answer
C. Pricking skin with needle and looking for pustule within 48 hours
18
Drugs that reduce albuminuria in Type 2 Diabetes mellitus is/are (i) ACE inhibitor or ARB (ii) SGLT2 inhibitor (iii) DPP4 inhibitor
Answer
B. Only (i & ii)
19
Which of the following statements is/are correct about thyroid disease in pregnancy? (i) Trimester speciļ¬c reference ranges should be used to interpret thyroid function tests in pregnancy (ii) Propylthiouracil is associated with risk of hepatotoxicity (iii) Carbimazole should be used in the ļ¬rst trimester and propylthiouracil used in the second and third trimesters
Answer
B. Only (i & ii)
20
Which of the following statements is correct about hyponatremia?
Answer
B. Oral urea therapy is used in management
21
The manoeuvre which promotes ļ¬exion of the head and minimise perineal lacerations during delivery
Answer
A. Modiļ¬ed Ritgen manoeuvre
22
In the ultrasound determination of chorionicity Twin peak sign is characteristic of
Answer
C. Dichorionic twins
23
The granulosa cells surrounding the primary oocyte constitutes the ______.
Answer
B. Cumulus oophorus
24
The diagnosis of signiļ¬cant proteinuria in pregnancy is
Answer
B. 300 mg in 24 hours or more
25
The longest anteroposterior diameter of the foetal head is
Answer
C. Vertico mental diameter
26
An oxytoxin antagonist which is safe and eļ¬ective
Answer
B. Atosiban
27
The enzyme which converts testosterone to dihydrotestosterone
Answer
D. -reductase
28
A platelet function defect which causes abnormal uterine bleeding
Answer
B. Glanzman's thrombasthenia
29
GnRH antagonist which can be used for medical management of ļ¬broids
Answer
B. Cetrorelix
30
A rare organism responsible for pelvic inļ¬ammatory disease and is typically linked to IUD usage
Answer
C. Actinomyces
31
The quardivalent vaccine which is eļ¬ective against human papilloma virus
Answer
C. Gardasil
32
The intact form of -hcG produced by invasive cytotrophoblast
Answer
A. hcG-H
33
In transvaginal ultrasound scanning the appearance of a endometriotic cyst is classically termed
Answer
B. Ground glass appearance
34
The causative organism of Lymphogranuloma inguinale is
Answer
B. Chlamydia trachomatis
35
Cause of deterioration in a case of head injury on 3rd day is
Answer
C. Brain edema
36
Triad of Pin point pupil, pyrexia, paralysis is seen in
Answer
C. Pontine haemorrhage
37
Management of persistent CSF rhinor-rhoea is
Answer
D. Surgical repair of dural tear
38
The commonest primary brain tumor is
Answer
A. Glioma
39
Paradoxical respiratory movements occur in
Answer
A. Flail chest
40
Calciļ¬ed hydatid cyst is most common in
Answer
A. Spleen
41
Which one is not poor prognostic factor for acute pancreatitis?
Answer
D. Hyperamylasemia
42
Vascular complications of acute pancreatitis include the following except :
Answer
D. Middle colic artery thrombosis
43
All are seen in chronic calciļ¬c pancreatitis except
Answer
C. Hypercalcemia
44
After 3 weeks of duration pancreatic pseudocyst 5 cm in size should be managed by which method?
Answer
D. USG and follow up
45
Earliest sign of deep vein thrombosis is
Answer
A. Calf tenderness
46
TRIVEX is a percutaneous technique of
Answer
C. Removal of vein by suction following injection of ļ¬uid
47
BRCA-1 gene is located on
Answer
C. Chromosome 17
48
Which of the following is colour code and explanation is matched correctly as per the triage used in disaster management?
Answer
C. Yellow-Stable patients, observation
49
A medical oļ¬cer in charge of a Primary Health Centre decided to conduct a screening camp in the community for early diagnosis and treatment of diabetes mellitus and hypertension. It represents
Answer
C. Secondary Prevention
50
An outbreak of a disease was reported from a PHC with a population of 20,000. There were 50 cases of the disease with 2 deaths from that disease in that area. What is the case fatality rate?
Answer
D. 4%
51
A medical oļ¬cer wanted to conduct a research to estimate the prevalence of hypertension among young adults in his PHC area. What is the most appropriate study design for his objective?
Answer
C. Cross-sectional study
52
Prevention and control of juvenile delinquency is an example of
Answer
A. Social defense
53
The following statements are correct about chlorination of water EXCEPT
Answer
B. Chlorine acts best at a pH of 8
54
Which of the following disease is transmitted by Hard tick?
Answer
A. Tick typhus
55
From a class of 300 students, a researcher required a sample size of 30 students to collect data. A number less than 10 was randomly chosen from the attendance register and every 10th number from that point was selected till the required sample size was met. This type of sampling is
Answer
C. Systematic random sampling
56
A 2 year old child was brought to the PHC with complaints of fever, cough and breathlessness. On examination, the child was febrile with a respiratory rate of 50 breaths per minute with no chest in drawing. The illness can be classiļ¬ed as
Answer
B. Pneumonia
57
Under Polio Eradication and Endgame strategic plan, to achieve and sustain a polio-free world, the following steps are involved, EXCEPT
Answer
C. Withdrawing OPV type 3 from tri-valent OPV in all immunization sessions
58
A man came to the PHC with complaints of domestic dog bite over left leg with oozing of blood. He gave a history of taking full course of anti-rabies vaccination 2 years back following a stray dog bite. What is the post-exposure prophylaxis to be given?
Answer
D. ARV on day 0, 3
59
The MOHFW launched Lacshya Program in 2017 to
Answer
A. Improve the quality of care in labour room
60
Syndromes under surveillance in Integrated Disease surveillance program include the following EXCEPT
Answer
B. Urethral discharge
61
Net Protein Utilization (NPU) is highest for
Answer
D. Egg
62
The early warning signs of cancer include the following EXCEPT
Answer
C. hypo-pigmented anesthetic patch over skin
63
Which is NOT true of Bronchiolitis?
Answer
B. Blood investigations must be done routinely in the assessment of children with Bronchiolitis
64
Which is NOT true about Acute Laryngeotracheal Bronchitis?
Answer
C. Loudness of stridor is a good indicator of severity of obstruction
65
Which of the following is NOT true of Respiratory disease of prematurity?
Answer
D. Continuous Positive Airway Pressure (CPAP) is the non invasive alternative to mechanical ventilation in apneic babies
66
Which of the following is NOT true of hemolytic disease of newborn?
Answer
C. Concomitant presence of OA incompatibility increases chance of Rh isoimmunization
67
Which is NOT true of Ascariasis in Children?
Answer
C. School age children are more vulnerable to infection
68
Which of the following is NOT a common feature of children with Diplegic Cerebral Palsy?
Answer
D. Intellect is not preserved
69
A 1-year-old boy born of invitro fertilization with normal growth and development presented with fever 7 days with non-purulent conjunctivitis, erythematous generalized maculopapular rash, cracked tongue and cervical lymph nodes (>1.5 cm). Which of the following is NOT true in this patient?
Answer
A. Diagnosis is incomplete Kawasaki Disease
70
Which of the following is NOT a feature of recurrent febrile seizures?
Answer
D. Absence of Family History
71
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Central Precocious Puberty?
Answer
B. Pubertal development is not sequential
72
Which of the following is NOT a cause for Microcephaly in children?
Answer
A. Fragile X syndrome
73
8-Month-old baby girl presented with bilateral pedal edema, weight for height is less than 70 percentage, respiratory rate is 68 per minute. Which of the following is TRUE regarding this child?
Answer
C. The cut oļ¬ for hypoglycemia is 45 mg/dl
74
Which of the following statements is NOT true regarding a 16-year-old girl with Turner's syndrome?
Answer
B. FSH and LH levels are reduced
75
Advantages of propofol as induction agent in Anaesthesia includes all the following except
Answer
B. Good analgesic and do not produce allergic reactions
76
Chemical agents used as weapons for Bioterrorism includes all the following except
Answer
C. Ethylene Oxide Gas
77
Choose correct option regarding functions of National Medical Commission (NMC) (i) Dealing with cases of unethical practices by registered Medical practitioners. (ii) Accreditation to CME programmes by allotting credit hours (iii) Improve access to quality and aļ¬ordable medical education (iv) Enforce high ethical standards in all aspects of medical services (v) Registration of qualiļ¬cations recognized in Modern Medicine, Homoeopathic Medicine and Indian Systems of Medicines (vi) Encourages medical professionals to adopt latest medical research in their work
Answer
C. (iii), (iv) and (vi) are correct
78
Sections of Bharathiya Nagarik Suraksha Samhita (BNSS) dealing with summons are
Answer
B. Sec 63-71 BNSS
79
In the World Health Organization deļ¬nitions, the extent and nature of the level of functioning of a person is known as
Answer
B. Activity
80
All of the following are deep heat physical modalities, except
Answer
D. Paraļ¬n bath
81
A 55-year-old diabetic patients with a slowly progressive, painless swelling of the left ankle for 6 months and diļ¬culty in weight-bearing. X-ray shows joint destruction new bone formation and loose bodies. Probable diagnosis is
Answer
D. Neuropathic joint
82
A 8-year-old child presents 2 years after supracondylar fracture treated with cast immobilization. Examination shows cubitus varus deformity but full elbow range of motion. What is the next best step?
Answer
B. Wait and watch till skeletal maturity
83
A 55-year-old man presents with bone pain, high-output heart failure and elevated alkaline phosphatase. X-ray shows cotton wool appearance of the skull. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
B. Paget's disease
84
A 30-year-old lady presents with persistent dull pain in the pelvis. X-ray shows a lobulated, calciļ¬ed lesion in the ilium. MRI conļ¬rms cortical destruction. What is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
B. Chondrosarcoma
85
Paralysis of Recurrent Laryngeal nerve does not aļ¬ect
Answer
D. Cricothyroid
86
MRI is more appropriate in evaluating
Answer
B. Suspected intraorbital or intracranial spread
87
Patients with petrous apicitis and diplopia has a palsy of cranial nerve
Answer
C. VI
88
'Tear drop' sign is a feature of
Answer
C. Orbital blow out feature
89
The causes of Leukocoria can be the following EXCEPT
Answer
D. Choroidal neovascular membrane
90
Management of Accomodative Esotropia includes all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Magniļ¬ers
91
All the following can be caused by Herpes Simplex infection EXCEPT
Answer
B. Mooren's ulcer
92
Imbert ļ¬ck principle is used in
Answer
C. Applanation tonometer
93
A 32 year old female presents with a hypopigmented anaesthetic patch on left upper arm with a small ''satellite lesion'' outside the patch and thickened left ulnar nerve. The most likely diagnosis is
Answer
B. Hansen Disease Borderline Tuberculoid
94
A 46 year old road traļ¬c accident victim with head injury who was admitted in the ICU and started on injection phenytoin developed on the seventh day oral ulceration, eye discharge, vesicles, bulla and peeling of the skin involving 40% of the body surface area. The most likely diagnosis is
Answer
D. Toxic Epidermal Necrolysis
95
''Pautrier's microabscess'' is seen in
Answer
C. Cutaneous T-cell lymphoma
96
A 72 year old male presents with multiple tense bulla on the ļ¬exures and trunk. Direct immunoļ¬uorescence study shows IgG and C3 along the dermo- epidermal junction. The most likely diagnosis is
Answer
B. Bullous pemphigoid
97
Which of the following is true about Bipolar Disorder?
Answer
C. Bipolar I disorder refers to depression alternating with mania
98
The legal principle that assesses a defendant's ability to understand the nature and quality of their act or to distinguish right from wrong at the time of the oļ¬ense is known as
Answer
B. McNaughten Rule
99
Which of the following neurotransmitter systems is most prominently implicated in the pathophysiology of schizophrenia?
Answer
B. Dopaminergic
100
Which of the following is not used as an anti-craving drug?
Answer
D. Risperidone
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