| Post Name | Assistant Surgeon/Casuality Medical Officer - Health Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 058/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 401/2024 |
| Date of Test | 24 June 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Normally innocuous impulse causing pain is known as
Answer
B. Allodynia
2
Most common symptom in aortic aneurysm is
Answer
A. Most often asymptomatic
3
The most common cause of primary headache is
Answer
D. Tension-type headache
4
Root value of ankle reļ¬ex is
Answer
C. S1
5
Exanthem Subitum is caused by
Answer
C. Human herpes virus 6
6
Acute febrile neutrophilic dermatosis is also known as
Answer
B. Sweet syndrome
7
Mutation in ion channel sub units is the cause of arrhythmogenesis in all except
Answer
B. Drug induced ventricular arrhythmias
8
The cornerstone of diagnosis of severe acute infectious diarrhoea is
Answer
A. Microbiologic analysis of stool
9
Indirect hyperbilirubinemia is seen in all except
Answer
C. Rotor Syndrome
10
Tubular proteinuria is
Answer
A. Less than 1 gm/24 hours
11
All the following factors are associated with progression of alcohol - associated liver disease except :
Answer
C. Male gender
12
A 32-year-old female is evaluated for anemia. All the following are suggestive of hemolysis except :
Answer
B. Reticulocyte production index < 2
13
What is the primary cause of anemia is chronic kidney disease patients?
Answer
A. Insuļ¬cient production of Erythropoietin (EPO)
14
All the following suggest a central cause of vertigo except :
Answer
C. Nystagmus inhibited by visual ļ¬xation
15
All the following drugs are approved for the preventive treatment for migraine except?
Answer
D. Fluoxetine
16
Wrong statement regarding scleroderma renal crisis is :
Answer
B. Normotensive renal crisis is generally associated with a favorable outcome
17
56-year-old diabetic male presented to the OPD with c/o severe pain in the Right big toe for 4 days. Pain is usually more at night. On examination, you notice the ļ¬rst big toe to be swollen, red with local warmth and tenderness. He reveals a previous history of similar episode 5 years back. He is currently on metformin and glimipride and sugars are controlled. Which of the following is not useful in the current management of the patient?
Answer
D. Allopurinol
18
Which among the following is not an oral drug for the treatment of Cushing's syndrome :
Answer
D. Etomidate
19
A 60-year-old male who smokes 10 cigarettes per day presented to the OPD with history of chronic cough and episodic breathlessness. On spirometry evaluation his FEV1/FVC is < 0.7. His post bronchodilator FEV1 is 56%. You comment on his severity of airļ¬ow obstruction based on GOLD criteria as :
Answer
B. Moderate
20
Choose the correct sequence of progression of ECG changes in worsening hyperkalemia : (i) Tall peaked T waves (ii) Widened QRS complex (iii) Loss of P waves (iv) Sine wave pattern
Answer
C. (i) (iii) (ii) (iv)
21
Which among the options have correct attitude, engaging diameter (cm) and denominator of vertex presentation
Answer
B. complete ļ¬exion, suboccipitobregmatic (9.5), occiput
22
Factors contributing to increase in body water in pregnancy which among the options is wrong
Answer
B. Decrease in ANP
23
Braxton Hicks contractions
Answer
D. No associated cervical changes
24
Human Chorionic Gonadotropin
Answer
D. Level constant from 20 weeks until term
25
Which option is wrong regarding BPP
Answer
A. Fetal growth
26
Contraindications for induction of Labour are all except
Answer
A. Premature Rupture of Membranes
27
The main support of the uterus is provided by
Answer
B. The cardinal ligament
28
The second stage of labor involves
Answer
D. Expulsion of the fetus
29
What is the uterine blood ļ¬ow at term :
Answer
D. 500 to 750 ml/min.
30
Turner syndrome: Which is true?
Answer
C. Usually presents with primary amenorrhea
31
The increase in blood volume in normal pregnancy is made up of
Answer
C. More plasma than erythrocytes
32
All the following hormones are products of placental synthesis, EXCEPT
Answer
C. Prolactin
33
We can detect the fetal heart beat by Sonography (Transvaginal) at :
Answer
B. 6 weeks
34
The softening of the cervical isthmus that occurs early in gestation is called
Answer
A. Hegar's sign
35
False statement about Triage
Answer
B. Triage increases immediate burden on medical faculties
36
Wrong statement about Flail Chest
Answer
C. Deļ¬ned as two or more RIB fractured in three or more places
37
Diabetic Gangrene is due to all except
Answer
D. None
38
Extradural Haematoma are due to rupture of (a) Artery (b) Vein (c) Venous Sinus
Answer
D. (a) and (b) and (c) only
39
All are features of acute subdural Haematoma except
Answer
A. Lucid Interval
40
Most common cause of compartment syndrome
Answer
A. Fracture
41
Usg ļ¬nding of carcinoma breast are all except
Answer
C. Mobile mass
42
Correct statement about tuberculous Lymph node and Cold abscess are all except
Answer
B. Active Pulmonary Tuberculosis with Tuberculous Lymphnode excision of Tuberculous Lymph node is the appropriate Lymph node
43
Among the premalignant condition the lowest risk for malignant transformation is
Answer
D. Lichen Planus
44
Nerves in relation to branchial cyst are all except
Answer
C. Vagus
45
In children Umbilical Hernia repair indicated above the age of _______ years
Answer
B. 2
46
Percentage of concomitant venous injury along with arterial injury in popliteal fossa
Answer
B. 40 - 50 %
47
Most common site for neuroendocrine tumour in appendix
Answer
A. Tip
48
Correct statement about Pseudolipoma
Answer
D. Diļ¬use Lipoma
49
Which of the following disease is caused by Culex Mosquito
Answer
C. West Nile fever
50
Accepted standards of ļ¬oor space for one person
Answer
B. 70 - 90 sq.ft
51
A 2 year old child diagnosed as having "Fast Breathing" when the respiratory rate is
Answer
C. 40 breaths per minutes or more
52
Which of the following facility available at MCH Level II for newborn care
Answer
B. Newborn care corner and Newborn stabilization unit
53
Which of the following is the correct match. i. Cyclopropagative biological transmission P. Polio ii. Propagative biological transmission Q. Malaria iii. Healthy carrier R. Measles iv. Incubatory carrier S. Plague
Answer
B. i-Q, ii - S, iii - P, iv - R
54
Sweat rate optimal for a working man
Answer
D. 2.5 litres in 4 hours
55
Which of the following statement is FALSE regarding leprosy
Answer
A. Dose of clofazimine for treatment of leprosy is 450 mg once monthly
56
Which of the following is an appropriate match i. Killed vaccine K. Diphtheria ii. Recombinant vaccine L. Yellow fever iii. Polysaccharide M. HPV vaccine iv. Toxoid N. Pneumo coccus v. Live attenuated vaccine O. Hepatitis A
Answer
C. i-O, ii-M, iii-N, iv-K, v-L
57
A 9-month-old infant was brought to the primary health centre for routine immunization scheduled at 9 months of age. Immediately following immunization the infant developed fever, vomiting and watery diarrhea. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Answer
D. Toxic shock syndrome
58
What is the dose of Equine Rabies Immunoglobin required for a 34 year old patient weighing 55 kg?
Answer
B. 7.3 ml
59
Which of the following statements are FALSE. i. Rejecting a true null hypothesis is type I error ii. Rejecting a false null hypothesis is type I error iii. Probability of making type I error should not be a more than 0.05 iv. Type II error can be decreased by decreasing the sample size
Answer
B. ii and iv
60
Following are the clinical features of Nipah Virus infection EXCEPT
Answer
C. Maculopapular rash
61
Which of the following is the Correct Intradermal Rabies Vaccination (IDRV) regimen for post exposure prophylaxis?
Answer
D. 0.1 ml at two sites over deltoid region on days 0, 3, 7 and 28
62
A study was conducted to compare the mean serum cholesterol level among three groups of smokers with smoking duration of 5 years, 10 years and 20 years. Which is the appropriate statistical test to use in this scenario?
Answer
C. one way ANOVA
63
A newborn, gestational age 38 weeks was delivered by cesarean section, developed respiratory distress soon after birth. Mother was not having diabetes, not having fever or foul-smelling vagianl discharge. There was no meconium staining of amniotic ļ¬uid.The chest X-ray showed no cardiomegaly, Lung ļ¬elds-increased interstitial streaky shadowing extending to periphery, mildly hyperinļ¬ated. No ļ¬uļ¬y opacities noted. The baby was given CPAP (Continuous Positive Airway Pressure) and improved within 24 hours. What is the most probable diagnosis?
Answer
B. Transient Tachypnoea of Newborn
64
Which one of the following is the cause for disproportionate short stature with high upper segment lower segment ratio?
Answer
A. Achondroplasia
65
A newborn 38 weeks gestational age was delivered normally, birth weight 2.9 kg. There is no history of birth asphyxia or fever. Baby developed jaundice within 24 hours after birth. The serum bilirubin increased rapidly and on the second postnatal day baby developed poor sucking and irritability and later developed opisthotonic posturing and seizures. What is the most likely pathology in this condition?
Answer
B. Involvement of basal ganglia
66
10 month old child, presented to the casualty with respiratory distress within 2 days of viral upper respiratory infection. No previous similar episodes. On examination, child is afebrile, Respiratory rate - 54/mt, bilateral rhonchi+, SPO2-98%, X-ray chest shows hyperinļ¬ation. Which statement is INCORRECT regarding this condition
Answer
C. Steroids are recommended in the management
67
One of the following is NOT a features of Kawasaki disease
Answer
C. Purulent conjunctivitis
68
Regarding Low birth weight baby, which of the following is NOT correct
Answer
D. Ponderal index more than 2.5 is suggestive of symmetric IUGR
69
A newborn was delivered normally at birth. On 5th postnatal day he developed lethargy, vomiting and seizures. On examination jaundice was present, liver enlarged 5 cm below coastal margin. Urine reducing substance was present. The most probable diagnosis is
Answer
B. Galactosemia
70
Risk of down syndrome in the oļ¬spring of a female carrier of 14:21 translocation is
Answer
D. 10-15%
71
The following are the features of Turner syndrome EXCEPT
Answer
D. Patent ductus arteriosus is the most commonly associated cardiac defect
72
Polyarthris in Juvenile Rheumatoid arthritis is
Answer
B. 5 or more joints in the ļ¬rst 6 months of disease onset
73
Which of the following formula represents the given composition? Milk Powder 30 grams, sugar 9 grams, vegetable oil 2 grams, water 100 ml
Answer
A. F-75
74
Microcephaly is seen in all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Tay Sachs disease
75
Components of high quality cardiopulmonary resuscitation are all except
Answer
C. Do not allow full recoil of chest after chest compression
76
Indications of a possible biotoxin exposure are all except
Answer
B. Natural occurrence of a disease
77
A 40-year old female diagnosed with breast cancer, is advised for mastectomy. Patient is hesitant to give consent. Which of the following action of surgeon is needed?
Answer
B. Explain the procedure and provide additional information
78
Choose the correct statements regarding Rigor morts. i. It occurs due to postmortem alteration of ATP due to dephosphorylation and deamination ii. It occurs in the group of muscles which have been actively working at the time of death. iii. It has a proximo-distal progression iv. It causes stiļ¬ness of entire body till secondary muscular ļ¬accidity
Answer
D. i, iii and iv are correct
79
An eight year old boy who has sustained suracondylar fracture of right elbow subsequent to fall. He was treated with K wire ļ¬xation. Implant removed and child was referred to PMR OPD. O/E elbow ROM 35-90 degrees with focal rise of temperature, indolent burns over dorsum of right index and middle ļ¬ngers with positive Oschner's pointing index sign. Out of the following which is the right combination of rehab diagnosis and management?
Answer
C. Post traumatic stiļ¬ness of right elbow, traumatic proximal median neuropathy, myossitis ossiļ¬cans to be managed with IRR+TENS, AROM elbow along with NSAIDs, Muscle relaxants, Galvanic ES, sensory re-education and bisphosphonates
80
A 55 year old right handed graphic designer met with a road traļ¬c accident. He had amputation of right thumb at MCP joint level, Symes amputation on left side. Estimate the percentage (%) of disability of this man as per the revised guidelines 2024 of RPWD Act 2016?
Answer
B. 73
81
What is the appropriate management of BUFORD complex
Answer
A. Arthroscopic stabilization only
82
Which of the following is the appropriate indication for operative management of midshaft humerus fractures?
Answer
A. Closed transverse fracture with associated complete radial nerve palsy
83
Which of the following is not characteristics of scapholunate dislocation?
Answer
C. A volar intercalated segment instability deformity
84
Which is most speciļ¬c in detecting infection of joints?
Answer
B. A combination of white blood cell scan and technetium bone scan
85
A 6 year old child with bilateral defective hearing for 8 months, with h/o month breathing and snoring during sleep. On examination, both tympanic membrane retracted and has waxy appearance. Tuning fork tests revealed B/L negative Rinnes test and ABC test normal. The treatment includes :
Answer
A. Myringotomy and grommet insertion
86
28 year old lady presents with severe throat pain, dysphagia and fever. On examination, there is mild trismus with drooling of saliva. The tonsil on right side is congested and pushed medially, soft palate is swollen and congested on right side, uvula is shifted to left side. She has hot potato voice and is dehydrated. Treatment is :
Answer
C. Incision and drainage, antibiotics and analgesic
87
10 year old boy with h/o scanty foul smelling left ear discharge of 3 years duration, presented with high fever and chills and rigor. On examination child was toxic and anemic with tenderness over IJV. Left tympanic membrane showed attic perforation with cholesteatoma. Probable diagnosis :
Answer
D. Lateral sinus thrombophlebitis
88
19 year old gentleman with right sided nasal block, on examination revealed a single greyish white, soft, insensitive, non-tender mass ļ¬lling right nasal cavity. No h/o epistaxis, nasal allergy or asthma. Treatment is
Answer
C. Functional endoscopic sinus surgery
89
Which of these statements is true about Behcets' disease i. associated with HLA B27 antigen ii. causes retinal vasculitis iii. recurrent orogenital ulcerations
Answer
B. only ii and iii
90
Bilateral oedema of optic disc is caused by all except
Answer
D. Foster kennedy syndrome
91
Which of these statements is true about Retinitis Pigmentosa i. EOG is markedly subnormal early in the disease ii. Most severe visual loss is seen in XL mode of inheritance iii. Results in a cavernous optic atrophy
Answer
C. only i and ii
92
Which of these statements is true in Lebers Heriditary optic atrophy. i. Unilateral condition ii. Due to maternally inherited mitochondrial DNA mutation iii. Aļ¬ects only males
Answer
C. only ii
93
A 24 year old female patient presented with complains of Pruritus with nocturnal exacerbation of 2 weeks duration. Family history of itching in her siblings. What is the pathognomonic skin lesion which helps in the diagnosis?
Answer
A. Burrow
94
A ļ¬fty year old male patient presented with recurrent attacks of asymptomatic skin coloured and erythematous plaques with silvery white scales for the past twenty years. Auspitz sign was positive. What is your provisional diagnosis?
Answer
B. Psoriasis
95
Hand Foot and Mouth disease is caused by
Answer
B. Coxsackie virus
96
Five year old child presented with asymptomatic verrucous papules on ļ¬nger tips of both hands. Name the characteristics cell seen on histopathological examination, suggestive of the Diagnosis?
Answer
D. Koilocytes
97
What is the primary psychoactive compound found in cannabis?
Answer
A. Tetrahydrocannabinol (THC)
98
Which of the following is an example of a neurodevelopmental disorder, as classiļ¬ed in the DSM-5?
Answer
C. Attention Deļ¬cit Hyperactivity Disorder (ADHD)
99
Which of the following is a type of bipolar disorder characterized by at least one manic episode?
Answer
A. Bipolar I Disorder
100
What is the primary characteristic of Insomnia Disorder?
Answer
B. Diļ¬culty initiating or maintaining sleep
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