| Post Name | Assistant Surgeon / casuality Medicine NCA-Medical Education |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 004/2020/OL |
| Category Code | 328/2018 |
| Date of Test | 23 January 2020 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Neural Tube develops due to inductive effect of -
Answer
D. Notochord
2
Menisco-femoral ligaments are attached to the following horn -
Answer
C. Posterior horn of lateral Meniscus
3
Greater splanchnic nerve carries following fibres -
Answer
A. Preganglionic sympathetic
4
The following sentences are true about Vas deferens EXCEPT
Answer
D. Opens to seminal vesicle
5
Deficiency manifestation of thiamine
Answer
B. Beriberi
6
Tumur marker useful in the diagnosis of hepatocellular carcinoma
Answer
D. AFP
7
Acute intermittent porphyria is due to deficiency of
Answer
A. UPG I synthase
8
The committed step of cholesterol biosynthesis is catalyzed by
Answer
B. HMG CoA reductase
9
Chief seat of peripheral resistance is
Answer
D. Arterioles
10
Hormone that widens pulse pressure is
Answer
C. Thyroxine
11
If the renal clerance of a substance which is freely filtered is less that that of Insulin
Answer
A. There is net re-absorption of the substance in the tubule
12
Arneth counting denotes
Answer
A. Counting of the lobes in Neutrophil
13
Railway spine is
Answer
C. Concussion of spine
14
Most specific chemical test for detection of semen is
Answer
D. Acid phosphatase test
15
Cerebra odollam is a predominant fatal
Answer
A. Cardiac poison
16
Smokeless powder used in cartridge of shotgun comprises of
Answer
D. Nitrocellulose, Nitroglycerine
17
All the following are enrichment media except ___________
Answer
C. Thioglycolate broth
18
Pontiac fever is caused by
Answer
D. Legionella pneumophilia
19
Mercaptoethanol reduction of lg molecule produces
Answer
C. Two heavy chains and two light chains
20
Which of the following is not a characteristic of Slow virus
Answer
A. Produces cytopathic effect in vitro
21
All are actions of atropine on eye except
Answer
C. Decrease intraocular tension
22
Which is a neuromuscular blocker
Answer
A. Succinyl Choline
23
Which is an Ester
Answer
A. Procaine
24
Tianeptine is
Answer
A. 5 HT uptake enhancer
25
The primary cells infected by M.tuberculosis are
Answer
B. Macrophages
26
The common histologic features of Chronic viral Hepatitis C(CHC), include all EXCEPT
Answer
A. Ground glass Hepatocytes
27
The primary glomerular lesions causing Nephrotic syndrome include all EXCEPT
Answer
B. Acute post infectious glomerulonephritis
28
Which is NOT TRUE about Carcinoid Heart Disease
Answer
D. The left side of the heart is commonly affected
29
The Triangle of Epidemiology shows the interaction and interdependence of
Answer
B. Agent, Host, Environment and Time
30
The Stanford Three Community study is a
Answer
C. Risk factor Trial
31
All are Phenotypic methods for detection of Mycobacteria directly from clinical samples except
Answer
A. Catridge Based Nucleic acid amplification test
32
The best measure of central tendency which can be used for a skewly distributed data is
Answer
B. Median
33
Interruption of transmission of a communicable disease from a large geographic area is known as
Answer
C. Disease elimination
34
An office clerk badly snubbed by his superior takes it out to his wife and children on reaching home. What is the type of defence mechanism was he adopted
Answer
C. Displacement
35
Most effective form of Chlorine in water disinfection is
Answer
D. Hypochlorous acid
36
An international treaty that was designed to reduce the movements of hazaardous waste between nations
Answer
B. Basel Convention
37
Fixation is completed by
Answer
C. 6 months
38
All are features of papilloedema except
Answer
C. Early visual loss
39
Which of the following intra ocular foreign body causes suppurative reaction
Answer
A. Nickel
40
Major cause of blindness in India is
Answer
D. Cataract
41
Distant direct ophthalmoscopy is done at a distance of
Answer
B. 25 cm
42
WHich of the following is true about Peter's anomaly?
Answer
B. Defects in corneal endothelium and Descemets membrane
43
Perineural invasion and pain are associated with which of the following orbital tumour
Answer
D. Adenoid cystic carcinoma of lacrimal gland
44
Characteristics of Congenital motor Nystagmus are all except
Answer
D. Worsens with convergence
45
Isshiki - Type I Thyroplasty is
Answer
A. Medial displacement of vocal cord
46
Device which offers hearing in a person with severe to profound sensorineural hearing loss
Answer
D. Cochlear implant
47
Epistaxis most common site is
Answer
B. Little's area
48
Thumb sign is seen in
Answer
C. Epiglottitis
49
Molecular genetic testing of GJB2 variants is done in the diagnosis of:
Answer
B. DFNB1
50
Gutzmann's pressure test is used in:
Answer
C. Mutational falsetto
51
Fluctuating hearing loss is seen in all except:
Answer
A. Otosclerosis
52
Bilateral loss of vestibular function is known as:
Answer
D. Dandy syndrome
53
All are features of sensory ataxia except
Answer
D. Wadding gait
54
All are causes of euvolemic hyponatremia except
Answer
C. Hyperthyroidism
55
Serum sickness is a representative example of following type of immunologically mediated drug reaction
Answer
C. Immune complex mediated
56
Given combinations of serological results indicates the following: HBsAg - Negative Anti HBe - Positive HBeAg - Negative IgM anti HBc - Negative Anti HBs - Positive IgG anti HBc - Positive
Answer
B. Resolved acute Hepatitis B
57
All are causes of aortic regurgitation except?
Answer
C. Congenital
58
Following is small vessel Vasculitis
Answer
A. Wegener's granulamatosis
59
All are suppurative lung diseases except
Answer
D. Interstitial lung disease
60
Following is the drug associated with RED MAN SYNDROME
Answer
B. Vancomycin
61
Negative symptoms of schizophrenia include all except
Answer
C. Automatic obedience
62
Which among the following is used as an anticraving agent?
Answer
A. Naltrexone
63
All about demantia are ture except
Answer
B. Alzheimer's disease is a type of subcortical dementia
64
Pressure of speech usually occurs in
Answer
C. Mania
65
The period of gestation during which Nuchal Translucency (NT) scan is done
Answer
B. 11 - 14 weeks
66
Which one of the following tocolytics is having neuroprotective effect on the fetus?
Answer
D. Magnesium Sulphate
67
After vasectomy, additional method of contraception is advised for a period of
Answer
C. 3 Months
68
All of the following conditions cause amenorrhoea except
Answer
C. Fibroid uterus
69
Dermatophagoides Pteronyssinus is a
Answer
B. House - Dust Mite
70
Black piedra is caused by
Answer
A. Piedraia Hortae
71
'Cluster of Jewels' sign is seen in
Answer
C. Linear lgA disease
72
Wide follicular pits in the triangular fossa of the ear is seen in
Answer
A. Discoid lupus erythematosus
73
In performing perioperative assessments, the most reliable biochemical predictors of operative morbidity and mortality across surgical specialities include which of the following
Answer
A. Serum albumin
74
Which is true regarding hypertrophic scar
Answer
C. Preventable
75
Abdominal compartment syndrome produces all of the following except
Answer
D. Intestinal obstruction
76
Deep second degree burns reepithelialise from retained keratinocytes in
Answer
B. Hair follicles
77
"Spilled Teapot sign" is seen in
Answer
A. Perilunate dislocations
78
All are true about "Paprika sign" except
Answer
D. Seen in avascular necrosis of head of femur
79
All are true about "SCFE" except
Answer
B. Right hip more affected than left hip
80
Least common location of 'Chondroblastoma' among the following is
Answer
D. Proximal radius
81
Work hardening is a term used in rehabilitation for
Answer
C. Simulation of an occupation following Low back pain
82
The following are types of Dyskinesia in cerebral palsy except
Answer
D. Spasticity
83
Kellegren's classification is used to assess the severity of
Answer
B. Osteo arthritis
84
All of the following could be life threatening complications in a C5 complete spastic quadriplegic with diabetes except
Answer
A. Shoulder hand syndrome
85
Thalidomide resulted in tragic epidemic of birth defects because
Answer
C. Teratological effects may not become apparent until many thousands of women consume a particular drug
86
The electron transport chain in mitochondria, which one is the only Cu²⁺ containing protein complex?
Answer
B. Cytochrome C oxidase
87
The frequency and intensity of incident radiation falling on a photosensitive surface is increased by a factor of two. This will
Answer
B. Increase the maximum kinetic energy of photoelectron and would increase the photoelectric current by a factor of two
88
Morphine, the first alkaloid was extracted by German pharmacologist
Answer
C. Pellatan
89
Concerning anaphylactic and anaphylactoid reactions during anesthesia the most common precipitating agent is
Answer
D. Neuromuscular blocking agents
90
Concerning LMA ProSeal choose the incorrect statement
Answer
C. Cuff pressures should not exceed 30 cm H2O
91
The most accurate technique for assessing residual neuromuscular blockade is by
Answer
A. Acceleromyography
92
Concerning crystalloids choose the incorrect statement
Answer
C. Excretion of excess water and electrolyte load with balanced salt solution is slower than with isotonic saline
93
All are methods for confirming proper endotracheal intubation EXCEPT
Answer
B. Spirometry
94
Which is FALSE regarding the history of anaesthesia?
Answer
D. The use of chloroform was popularised in England by Humphrey Davy
95
All are examples of spinal needles EXCEPT
Answer
B. Tuohy needle
96
Which among the following is NOT CORRECT regarding latest CPCR guidelines
Answer
D. Chest compressions should be more than 6 cms
97
Which metal ingestion is known to mimic Kawazaki disease?
Answer
D. Mercury
98
The fragile site that has its clinical significance in Fragile X Syndrome is
Answer
B. Xq 27.3
99
Mission Indradhanush was launched in the year
Answer
B. 2014
100
For prophylaxis of pediatric migraine the only FDA approved drug is
Answer
C. Onabotulinum toxin
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