| Post Name | ASSISTANT SURGEON/CASUALTY MEDICAL OFFICER - HEALTH SERVICES |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 162/2025 |
| Category Code | 177/2025 |
| Date of Test | 1 December 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Palla’s sign refers to :
Answer
C. Enlarged right descending pulmonary artery
2
Which is the most common site of dissemination in hematogenously disseminated
Mucormycosis?
Answer
B. Brain
3
Which is the most common pulmonary disease in HIV?
Answer
D. Bacterial pneumonia
4
Which is the most sensitive test for the diagnosis of Enteric fever?
Answer
B. Bone marrow culture
5
Most common organism associated with community acquired Bacterial meningitis is :
Answer
A. Streptococcus pneumonia
6
A patient who received I.V. ceftriaxone immediately collapsed, he had wheezing and was
flushed. He had a bold pressure of 80/40 mm of Hg. Which of the following is the most
appropriate immediate management for this patient?
Answer
D. Epinephrine 0.5 mg 1:1000 I.M
7
Which of the following is a contradiction for Anti snake Venom administration?
Answer
D. None of the above
3 A
8
56-year-old male, known coronary artery disease patient, complaints of fatigue and
dyspnoea while dressing. To which class of NYHA classification does this patient belong?
Answer
C. Class III
9
QT interval prolongation may be associated with the use of which of the following anti
microbials?
Answer
C. Erythromycin
10
Earliest macroscopic finding in colonic Chron’s disease is :
Answer
A. Aphthous ulcer
11
Portal vein thrombosis is an example of which type of portal hypertension :
Answer
B. Pre-hepatic pre-sinusoidal
12
Which among the following is NOT a feature of tumour lysis syndrome?
Answer
D. Hypophosphatemia
13
Which among the following is implicated in causing aplastic crisis in patients with sickle
cell anaemia?
Answer
C. Parvovirus B19
14
Which of the following is FALSE regarding the diagnosis of ARDS?
Answer
A. ARDS is diagnosed when significant left atrial hypertension is present
15
A 30-year-old lady developed multiple episodes of diarrhoea and vomiting one day after
taking food from a hotel. She could not tolerate oral feeds either. On the third day of
illness, her urine output reduced. After admission to the hospital, her blood urea level
was 200 mg/dl and her serum creatinine level was 2 mg/dL. She is said to have :
Answer
C. Prerenal
16
Which among the following drugs is the first one to be administered in a case of
impending and early status epilepticus?
Answer
D. Intravenous lorazepam
17
In older adults, the inability to withstand minor stresses because of reduced functional
reserve in several organ systems will be diagnosed as :
Answer
A. Frailty
18
The CREST syndrome is a subset of patients under :
Answer
D. Limited scleroderma
19
The ‘Prayer sign’ is elicited while evaluating a patient with :
Answer
Question Cancelled
20
The drug Patiromer is used in the treatment of :
Answer
A. Hperkalemia
21
During ovulation _______________ extrudes out with antral fluid and cumulus.
Answer
B. Secondary oocyte
22
In monozygotic twins dichorionic placentation is seen when the division occurs :
Answer
A. Before 3 days
23
All these are used for induction of labour except :
Answer
C. Mifepristone
24
The incidence of Sarcomatous change in a uterine myoma is :
Answer
A. Less than 0.5%
25
Polyhydramnios is an excess amount of Amniotic fluid with amniotic fluid index more
than :
Answer
D. 25
26
Nerve that provides sensation to the skin of suprapubic area :
Answer
B. Ilio hypogastric nerve
27
Combination of Previous caesarean and an anterior placenta increases the risk of :
Answer
D. Placenta Acreta
28
The “All or None” period of embyogenesis regarding teratogenesis is :
Answer
A. First 2 weeks after conception
29
The most accurate method to date pregnancy using ultrasound is by measuring :
Answer
B. CRL at 7 – 14 weeks
30
Clue cells are seen in the wet smear of :
Answer
C. Bacterial Vaginosis
31
Krukenberg tumours of the ovary arise mostly from a primary carcinoma in :
Answer
C. Stomach
32
Arias Stella reaction is seen in all of the following condition except :
Answer
D. Leiomyoma
162/2025 6 A
33
Right sided Hydrothorax and ascites is seen in :
Answer
B. Meig’s Syndrome
34
The LNG - IUS contains ______________ of levonorgestrel.
Answer
C. 52 mgm
35
In Triage among the injuries not included in red zone :
Answer
D. compound fracture
36
Not an early management of severe acute pancreatitis :
Answer
A. ERCP
37
Pseudocyst less likely to resolve spontaneously are all except :
Answer
C. acute fluid collection
38
Treatment of flail chest without respiratory failure are all except :
Answer
B. ventilation
39
False statement about extradural haematoma :
Answer
B. can always follow major trauma
40
Acute subdural haematoma false statement is :
Answer
C. lucid interval
41
In glascow coma scale score for head injury motor response 4 is :
Answer
A. withdraw flexion
42
Common cause of extremity compartmental syndrome :
Answer
D. Fractures
43
False statement about axillary lymph node dissection in carcinoma breast :
Answer
C. level I, level II and level III routinely removed
44
Most common serious complication of varicose vein surgery is :
Answer
A. nerve injury
45
Not a cause of diabetic gangrene :
Answer
B. venous insufficiency
46
False statement about factors associated with increased risk for carcinoma oral cavity in
pre existing
Answer
Question Cancelled
47
Wrong statement about branchial cyst :
Answer
B. appear before adolescence
48
Pseudolipoma is :
Answer
D. diffuse lipoma
49
Which of the following is not considered a determinant of health?
Answer
D. Genetic engineering
50
The “attack rate” represents :
Answer
C. The number of individuals who become ill among those exposed to a risk
factor
51
Which of the following statements about screening tests is correct?
Answer
A. Sensitivity and specificity are independent of disease prevalence
52
“Good Health and Well-Being” is the third goal in which international framework?
Answer
B. Sustainable Development Goals
53
In the direct method of standardization, which step is performed?
Answer
A. Apply study-population rates to a standard population structure
54
In the natural history of disease, the stage in which pathological changes occur without
symptoms is known as :
Answer
B. Subclinical stage
55
A disease is considered suitable for screening if :
Answer
A. There is an early detectable latent stage
56
The basic reproduction number (R o ) indicates :
Answer
B. The average number of secondary cases produced by one primary case in a
completely susceptible population
57
In a multistage cluster sample with a design effect of 1.5 per stage for 4 stages, the
overall design effect will be approximately :
Answer
C. 5.06
58
If incidence among exposed = 20/1000 per year and among
unexposed = 5/1000 per year, the attributable-risk percent among exposed is :
Answer
C. 75%
59
A vaccine carrier with properly conditioned ice packs can normally maintain the
required temperature range of +2 °C to +8 °C for approximately :
Answer
C. 12 hours
60
Which combination of risk factors contributes most significantly to global coronary-
heart-disease burden?
Answer
Question Cancelled
61
Evaluation of a health programme that focuses on implementation fidelity and
immediate outputs is known as :
Answer
C. Process evaluation
62
A region with CBR = 20 per 1000 and TFR 2.5 is likely to have :
Answer
C. Large proportion of women in reproductive age group
63
Match the following types of Cerebral Palsy with their radiological findings :
Answer
A. spastic quadriplegia (i) porencephalic cyst
64
All the following conditions are associated with congenital hydrocephalus except :
Answer
D. Rubinstein Taybi syndrome
65
17 – hydroxylase deficiency is associated with which type of DSD ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
66
All are true regarding breast milk jaundice except :
Answer
C. It is conjugated hyperbilirubinemia
67
Which of the following situation in a new born baby is least likely to be sepsis and where
the baby can be kept under observation?
Answer
D. Upper respiratory infection in both baby and mother
68
All the following conditions produce respiratory distress in a neonate on day 1 except :
Answer
D. Congenital heart disease-left to right shunt
69
Which of the following statement regarding systemic onset juvenile immune arthritis
is/are wrong?
(i) Defect in adaptive immune system
(ii) Usually associated with fever of more than 2 weeks
(iii) In severe type methyl prednisolone is the drug of choice
(iv) Usually associated with hepatospleenomegaly
Answer
A. (i) is wrong
70
Match the following :
Answer
B. Medium vessel vasculitis (ii) HSP
71
Kwashiorker is associated with all the following features except :
Answer
C. Voracious appetite
72
Causes of apparent regression in cerebral palsy can be :
Answer
D. All of the above
73
In a balanced translocation 21;21 t (21q; 21q) the risk of viable foetus to have down
syndrome is :
Answer
C. 100%
74
The cut off line for precautious puberty in a female child is :
Answer
B. 8 years
75
BCLS
Answer
C. Preferred route of pharmacotherapy intraosseous over intravenous
76
Usual agents for bioterrorism are the following except :
Answer
C. Klebsiella and staphylococcus
77
The following one is not a grievous hurt :
Answer
D. emaciation
162/2025 13 A
78
Davidson – Smith bodies are :
Answer
B. seen in females
79
Ischial containment socket is the prosthetic socket design for ————— prosthesis.
Answer
C. trans Femoral prosthesis
80
Piezo electric crystal is a component of ————— physical agent modality.
Answer
A. ultrasound
81
What is the most common site of tuberculosis in a vertebra?
Answer
C. paradiscal
82
Pirani classification is used :
Answer
A. congenital talipes equino varus
83
Onion peel appearance is a radiological finding of :
Answer
B. Ewing’s sarcoma
84
Galeazzi fracture is :
Answer
D. fracture junction of middle 3rd lower 3rd radius with distal radioulnar joint
subluxation
85
In Malignant Otitis Externa, which of the following statements are correct EXCEPT :
Answer
C. Infection may spread posteriorly to Temporomandibular fossa
86
Acute inflammation of larynx producing hoarseness are all EXCEPT :
Answer
D. Laryngeal Tuberculosis
87
Which of the following is NOT a feature of Mucormycosis?
Answer
A. Narrow septate hyphae
88
NPPCD (National Program for Prevention and Control of Deafness) was started by the
Ministry of Health and Family Welfare as a pilot project in which year?
Answer
B. 2006-2007
89
Which of the following statement is/are true regarding papilloedema?
(i) Absence of spontaneous venous pulsation cannot be taken as a conclusive evidence
of papilloedema
(ii) Central visual acuity may be unimpaired in the initial stages
(iii) Visual field shows enlargement of the blind spot
(iv) Tumours of the anterior cranial fossa rarely produce papilloedema
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
90
Which statement among the following is false?
(i) Pneumococci can invade the normal corneal epithelium
(ii) Corneal ulcer produced by pneumococcus is called ulcus serpens
(iii) Anterior staphyloma is a complication of perforated corneal ulcer
(iv) Sterile hypopyon is seen in case if bacterial corneal ulcers.
Answer
A. (i)
91
Which statement among the following is false?
(i) Primary angle closure glaucoma accounts for 50% of primary adult glaucomas in
Asians.
(ii) Phacolytic glaucoma is a type of secondary angle closure glaucoma
(iii) Primary open angle glaucoma is generally asymptomatic
(iv) Neovascular glaucoma follows extensive retinal ischemia.
Answer
B. (ii)
92
Which among the following is/are true regarding cataract?
(i) Diabetic cataract is otherwise called ‘snowflake’ cataract
(ii) ‘Christmas tree’ cataract is seen in myotonic dystrophy
(iii) Hypermaturity generally does not occur in nuclear cataract
(iv) Lower rates of posterior capsular opacification are seen in those with hydrophobic
acrylic lenses after cataract surgery
Answer
D. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
93
The following laser is used for targeted phototherapy in vitiligo :
Answer
B. Excimer laser
94
A 42 year old man presented with multiple discrete flaccid vesicles and bulla on the
trunk with oral ulcers and crusting of the scalp. Direct immunofluorescence of the
perilesional skin lesion demonstrated IgG with a fish net pattern and a linear band at
the dermo-epidermal junction. The most likely diagnosis is :
Answer
D. Paraneoplastic pemphigus
95
A 32 year old female presented with multiple discrete hypopigmented anesthetic patches
(5 in number) with partly sharp borders and partly ill defined borders on the anterior
trunk. One patch has a “satellite” lesion. The most probable type of leprosy is :
Answer
B. Borderline tuberculoid leprosy
96
The following are the cutaneous manifestations of paraneoplastic syndromes EXCEPT :
Answer
A. Erythema chronicum migrans
97
Which is false about personality disorders in ICD-11?
Answer
B. They are classified into categories
98
Regarding Wernicke’s encephalopathy, which is true?
Answer
D. All of the above
99
Regarding obstructive sleep apnoea syndrome, which is false?
Answer
C. Benzodiazepines are the mainstay in the management
100
Advance Directive
Answer
A. D) :
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