| Post Name | Assistant Tester Cum Gauger - Malabar Cements Limited |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 137/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 348/2024 |
| Date of Test | 13 November 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following is an amorphous substance?
Answer
A. Rubber
2
Ice is an example of
Answer
C. Molecular solid
3
Which of the following statements about crystalline solids is/are correct? i. They are anisotropic in nature ii. They do not have sharp melting point iii. They have short range order
Answer
A. Only (i)
4
Number of atoms per body-centred cubit unit cell is:
Answer
B. 2
5
Coordination number in cubic close packed structure is:
Answer
D. 12
6
Which of the following solids has sharp melting point?
Answer
B. Sodium chloride
7
An ionic compound is formed by elements A and B in which B⁻ makes a ccp lattice and A⁺ occupies all the octahedral voids. The formula is:
Answer
A. AB
8
If the radius ratio lies between 0.414 to 0.732, coordination number will be:
Answer
B. 6
9
Packing efficiency in hexagonal close packing is
Answer
B. 74
10
Which of the following is/are correct? (i) In NaCl, Na⁺ ions occupy all the tetrahedral voids. (ii) In ZnS, Zn²⁺ ions occupy half of the tetrahedral voids. (iii) In CsCl, Cs⁺ ions occupy all the cubic voids formed by Cl⁻ ions.
Answer
C. Only (iii)
11
Which of the following is a secondary air pollutant?
Answer
C. Ozone
12
Which of the following is not a unit used to express the concentration of air pollutants?
Answer
C. mg/L
13
Select the statement which help to control air pollution: (i) Use natural gas (ii) Arrange awareness programme against air pollution (iii) Plant more trees
Answer
D. All the above
14
Which is the most important human-controlled green house gas?
Answer
C. CO₂
15
Select correct instrumental methods used for monitoring air pollutants: i. Photometry ii. IR spectroscopy iii. Laser Technique iv. Fluoriometry
Answer
A. All are correct
16
Which metal is responsible for Minamata disease?
Answer
C. Hg
17
Which disease is caused by the excessive use of nitrite fertilizers?
Answer
B. Blue baby syndrome
18
Choose the correct statements: (i) Low BOD value is an indication of water pollution (ii) Low COD value is an indication of water pollution (iii) High BOD value is an indication of water pollution (iv) High COD value is an indication of water pollution
Answer
C. (iii) and (iv)
19
The presence of heavy metals like lead and cadmium in soil is mainly due to __________.
Answer
B. Industrial waster disposal
20
Chemically, DDT is classified as ____________.
Answer
C. Chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticide
21
Classify the following solvents Column I Column II (i) Carbontetra chloride (a) Basic solvent (ii) Methyl alcohol (b) Aprotic solvent (iii) Liquid ammonia (c) Acidic solvent (iv) Acetic acid (d) Amphoteric solvent
Answer
A. (i)-(b), (ii)-(d), (iii)-(a), (iv)-(c)
22
The ratio of heat of vaporisation (J) to the boiling point (k) of a liquid is known as:
Answer
C. Trouton constant
23
Which among the following statements are correct: (i) The dielectric constant of liquid ammonia is smaller than that of water (ii) The freezing and boiling points of liquid ammonia are higher than that of water (iii) NH_4Cl may be regarded as a strong acid in liquid ammonia (iv) Hydrochloric acid dissolves in liquid ammonia giving NH_4⁺, NH_2⁻ and Cl⁻ ions
Answer
C. (i), (iii)
24
SO₃, when dissolved in liquid ammonia, forms ammoniates. These ammoniates are (SO₃ : NH₃)
Answer
D. 1 : 2 adduct
25
Alkali metals in liquid ammonia are ____________.
Answer
B. Reducing agents
26
Which among the following is a super acid?
Answer
D. HSO₃F·SbF₅
27
The auto-ionisation products of N₂O₄ are
Answer
C. NO⁺ and NO₃⁻
28
NOCl behaves as ___________ in N₂O₄ solvent.
Answer
A. Acid
29
What are the products formed when HNO₃ is treated with HF?
Answer
B. H₂NO₃⁺ and F⁻
30
Any compound which makes available SO₃²⁻ ions in liquid SO₃ will act as ____________.
Answer
C. Bases
31
The number of significant figures present in 0.0304 is
Answer
B. 3
32
0.002856 rounded to three significant figure is:
Answer
C. 0.00286
33
The numerical difference between measured value and absolute value of an analytical determination is:
Answer
C. Error
34
Error in the ejudgement of colourof solution at the end point in titration is
Answer
A. Personal error
35
Which of the following reduce random error most effectively?
Answer
C. Repeated measurement and averaging
36
Which of the following statement about standard deviation is incorrect?
Answer
A. Standard deviation can be negative
37
The number of significant figures present in 0.003290
Answer
B. 4
38
Which of the following is not included in the classification of error?
Answer
B. Value error
39
Which of the following error is accidental error?
Answer
A. Indeterminate error
40
A sample of hematite was analysed by eleven students. The value obtained for the percentage of iron were as follows: 12.62, 12.73, 12.75, 12.78, 12.79, 12.83, 12.84, 12.87, 12.87, 12.92 and 12.94. The median value is:
Answer
C. 12.83
41
Which one of the following is a wrong statement regarding gravimetry? (1) Digestion reduces the extent of co-precipitation and decrease size of crystals of precipitates which facilitates the filtration. (2) The low solubility of precipitates is achieved by the excess of precipitating agent. (3) By decreasing the temperature of the solution, solubility of precipitates will be decreased. (4) Precipitating agent should be mixed slowly and with constant agitation, which keep degree of supersaturation high and thus it will help in formation of crystalline precipitates. (5) The extent of contamination by post precipitation is much lower than coprecipitation.
Answer
C. (1), (4) and (5) are wrong
42
Which of the following is the best reagent, added to the given lead acetate solution, for the gravimetric estimation of Lead?
Answer
C. Potassium chromate
43
In gravimetric estimation of iron as iron oxide, after precipitating iron as iron hydroxide, the precipitate is made free from chloride ions by washing with
Answer
B. One percent ammonium nitrate solution
44
The gravimetric technique used to separate and analyze the ions in a substance like a metal is
Answer
B. Electrogravimetry
45
The ashless filter paper used, in the gravimetric estimation of sulphate as barium sulphate, for the decantation of the clear solution of the precipitated barium sulphate is
Answer
A. Whatman No. 540
46
For the gravimetric estimation of nickel, which one of the following is correct?
Answer
B. Precipitating reagent is Dimethylglyoxime and the pH is buffered in the range of 5 to 9
47
The crucible used for filtration of the precipitate obtained during the gravimetric estimation of silver as silver chloride is
Answer
B. Sintered Glass Crucible
48
In the gravimetric estimation procedure of copper as cuprous thiocyanate, the role of sulphurous acid is
Answer
D. Reducing Agent
49
In the gravimetric estimation, on digestion, precipitates tends to become:
Answer
D. Increase size of crystals of precipitates
50
In gravimetric estimation of magnesium using Diammonium hydrogen phosphate, the precipitate is ignited and weighed as:
Answer
A. Mg₂P₂O₇
51
In the titration of Fe²⁺ with KMnO₄ in acidic medium, MnO₄⁻ is reduced to:
Answer
B. Mn²⁺
52
In dichromate titration of Fe²⁺ solution, which of the following is commonly used as an external indicator?
Answer
C. Potassium ferricyanide
53
The reagent most commonly used in complexometric titration is:
Answer
D. Ethylene di amine tetra acetic acid
54
The molality of pure water is approximately
Answer
B. 55.5m
55
The weight of Mohr's salt required to prepare 0.5N solution in 500 ml. is approximately
Answer
A. 100g
56
Which of the following substance is suitable as a primary standard?
Answer
B. Potassium dichromate
57
Which of the following concentration term is temperature independent?
Answer
C. Molality
58
In acid-base titration, the colour change of phenolphthalein occurs between pH:
Answer
D. 8.3 - 10.0
59
In an acid-base tirtration, if 20 ml of 0.1 N NaOH neutralizes 40 ml of acid solution, the normality of HCl is:
Answer
D. 0.05 N
60
In the titration of Zn²⁺ ions with EDTA using Eriochrome Black T as indicator, the colour change at the end point is
Answer
A. Red to Blue
61
Which is the correct increasing order of percentage of oxides present in Portland cement?
Answer
D. CaO > SiO₂ > Al₂O₃
62
A slow setting cement contains:
Answer
A. Excess of silica
63
Maximum permissible limit of magnesia in cement, used for railway sleepers, in 53-S Grade cement is:
Answer
A. 5%
64
Which one of the following ingredients in not a content in Portland Cement?
Answer
B. Tricalcium phosphate [Ca₃(PO₄)₂]
65
Consider the following Statement: 1) Setting of cement is an endothermic process 2) Setting of cement involves hydration and rearrangement of molecules of calcium aluminates and calcium silicates
Answer
D. (1) is wrong, (2) is correct
66
Ordinary Portland Cement Grade 33 means:
Answer
B. Compressive strength of cement is 33 MPa
67
For a good-quality cement, the ratio of silica (SiO₂) to alumina (Al₂O₃) should be between:
Answer
A. 2.5 and 4
68
To determine compressive strength of cement, How much water is to be added in mortar as a percentage of total mass of cement and sand, where P stands for the water required for standard consistency?
Answer
C. P/4 + 3
69
Initial setting time for ordinary portland cement and IRS_T_40 Cement respectively are:
Answer
B. 30 minute and one hour
70
Find the correct match for tests on cement and apparatus or method used:
Answer
C. Soundness test - Le-Chatelier's apparatus
71
Cement clinker is mixed with 2-3% by weight of which substance to slow down the process of setting?
Answer
C. CaSO₄·2H₂O
72
The fineness and strength of the cement are:
Answer
D. Directly proportional
73
Raw materials used for High alumina cement is
Answer
B. Limestone and Bauxite
74
Vicat apparatus is used for
Answer
C. Consistency test
75
Which are the correct statements? (i) Portland Pozzolana cement produces less heat of hydration. (ii) Extra rapid hardening cement is obtained by integrating calcium chloride with rapid hardening Portland Cement. (iii) Sulphate resisting cement contains high amount of tricalcium aluminate. (iv) Expansive cement suffers no over change in volume on drying.
Answer
C. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
76
During wet process of production of cement which is not used as fuel for burning?
Answer
D. Wood
77
Cement used for mass concreting is:
Answer
A. Low heat cement
78
During the field test for the quality of cement, a hand full of cement taken and thrown to a bucket full of water. A good quality cement will:
Answer
D. Particles float for sometime before they sink
79
Rediset cement can be used for: (i) Mass concrete (ii) Patch repairs and emergency repair (iii) Construction between tides (iv) As sulphate resistant
Answer
B. (ii) and (iii) are correct
80
Advantage of Portland Possolana Portland cement over ordinary Portland cement is due to:
Answer
D. All the above
81
When no heat energy is allowed to enter or leave the system, the process is called;
Answer
C. Adiabatic
82
Among the following which one is extensive property?
Answer
A. Volume
83
A system absorbs 400 J of heat and does work equivalent to 300 J on its surroundings. The change in internal energy is:
Answer
B. 100 J
84
Which one of the following is not a state function?
Answer
D. heat
85
The heat required to raise the temperature of a body by 1ºC is called:
Answer
B. Heat capacity
86
The process of evaporation of a liquid is accompanied by
Answer
C. increase in entropy
87
The correct relationship between free-energy change in a reaction and the corresponding equilibrium constant Kc is:
Answer
D. −ΔG° = RT ln Kc
88
Among the following which one is not a spontaneous process?
Answer
A. Electrolysis of water
89
For a reaction to be spontaneous at all temperature:
Answer
A. ΔG and ΔH should be negative
90
What is the enthalpy change for the allotropic transformation from monoclinic sulphur to rhombic sulphur, given that S(rhombic) + O₂(g) → SO₂(g), ΔH = −295.1 kJ and S(monoclinic) + O₂(g) → SO₂(g), ΔH = −296.4 kJ?
Answer
A. −1.3 kJ
91
During corrossion metal gets
Answer
B. oxidised
92
During rusting of iron, at the cathodic spot oxygen is reduced to water. H⁺ for this reaction is obtained from
Answer
A. H₂CO₃
93
Galvanisation is the process in which iron surface is coated with
Answer
C. Zinc
94
Tarnishing of silver is an example for corrossion in which silver gets converted to its
Answer
D. Sulphide
95
Among the following which metal cannot be used for sacrificial protection of Iron?
Answer
A. Copper
96
Which among the following is not a Barrier protection method for preventing corrosion of a metal?
Answer
D. Connecting the metal to a more active metal
97
What is the effect of electrolyte on the rate of corrossion?
Answer
B. increase the rate of corrosion
98
Which of the following statement regarding corrosion is false?
Answer
A. Corrossion of iron is not an electro chemical process
99
Chemical formula of rust is:
Answer
C. Fe₂O₃·xH₂O
100
Among the following which metal gets easily corroded?
Answer
B. Magnesium
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