| Post Name | Assistant Town Planner 572/2024,721/2024 |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 062/2025 |
| Category Code | 572/2024, 721/2024 |
| Date of Test | 11 June 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A thin plate is subjected to Οβ = 15 MPa, Οᡧ = 25 MPa and Οπ = 0, with Poisson ratio 0.3 and E = 200 Γ 10Β³ MPa. The strain Ξ΅π is:
Answer
A. β60 Γ 10β»βΆ
2
The stress developed in the bar of 100 mm length which is rigidly supported at both
ends, due to rise in temperature of 10Β°c is
Answer
C. onsider youngβs modulus of the material
as 2Γ105 MPa and coefficient of linear thermal expansion as 10Γ10β6 per Β°
3
a bar in simple tension test is subjected to normal stress of 150 mPa. The maximum
shear stress developed in the bar is
Answer
D. 75 mPa
4
a simply supported beam a β B of span l is subjected to linearly varying load of
intensity zero at end a and maximum value of intensity w at the other end B. The
maximum bending moment in this beam occurs
l l
Answer
A. at from a
5
The rate of change of shear force at any section on the of the beam is equal to
Answer
C. Negative of intensity of distributed load at the same section
6
For a given shear force, shear stress is maximum in symmetrical I section
Answer
B. at centroidal axis
7
The maximum shear stress in a circular section of area a due to shear force F is
2F 3F
Answer
D. 4a 3a
8
The maximum flexural stress developed in a simply supported beam of width B,
depth d and span l subjected to concentrated load W at l/4 from one end is
9 Wl 8 Wl
Answer
A. 9WL/(8BDΒ²)
9
The ratio of the slope of elastic curve at the free end of cantilever beam of length
2L to that of L, with same flexural rigidity EI, carrying uniformly distributed load of
intensity w throughout the length is
Answer
D. 8
10
a prismatic girder of length l which is simply supported at its end is subjected to
Udl of w/unit length over its entire span. If it is propped at the centre of the span
to neutralize deflection, the resulting net bending moment at the central prop is
wl 2 wl 2
Answer
Question Cancelled
11
a surveyor measured the distance between two points on the plan drawn to a scale
1cm = 50 m and the result is 510 m, later he realised that the scale used by him for
measurement is 1cm : 100m. What is the true distance between the two points ?
Answer
D. 1020 m
12
a line of levels was run from Bench mark No. 1 of Rl 802.5 m to Bench mark No. 2
of Rl 804.8 m. The sum of back-sight was 2.5 m and foresight was 0.4 m.
What was the closing error ?
Answer
A. β 0.2 m
13
Find the combined correction for curvature and refraction for a distance of 10 km.
Answer
B. 6.73 m
14
agonic line passes through the point of
Answer
B. Zero declination
15
The magnetic bearing of a line aB was N59Β° W, what is the true bearing of the line
if the declination is 3Β° W ?
Answer
A. 298Β°
16
When magnetic bearing of sun at noon is 185Β°. Find magnetic declination.
Answer
B. 5Β°W
17
The following perpendicular offsets are taken at 30 m intervals from a survey line to
an irregular boundary. calculate the area by Simpsons rule.
1.80, 2.00, 2.20, 2.00, 1.80.
Answer
D. 240 m2
18
The super elevation of a transition curve at circular curve is 10 cm. The rate of
attaining super elevation is 2cm/sec. average speed of vehicle is 20m/sec. Find the
length of transition curve.
Answer
A. 100 m
19
a transition curve of length 100 m joins a circular curve of radius 500 m. What is the
value of shift angle turned by the transition curve ?
Answer
A. 0.10 radians
20
a series of closely spaced contour lines represents
Answer
C. Steep slope
21
The Smithβs test is used to determine which of the following properties of stone ?
Answer
D. Soluble matter
22
Which of the following types of cement is used for canal lining ?
Answer
B. Sulphate resisting cement
23
modulus of elasticity, in N/mm2, of an m25 grade concrete should not be less than
Answer
B. 2.0Γ104
24
Which of the following factors does not influence workability ?
Answer
C. Specific gravity of aggregate
25
The minimum depth required for a foundation
I. is directly proportional to the intensity of loading
II. is inversely proportional to the intensity of loading
III. is directly proportional to the density of the soil
IV. is inversely proportional to the density of soil
V. depends on the angle of repose
Answer
B. Statements I, IV and V are correct
26
Identify the correct statements.
I. PERT deals with a probabilistic network
II. cPm is event-oriented program
III. cPm deals with a deterministic network
IV. In cPm, times are related to cost
Answer
A. Statements I, III and IV are correct
27
mass loaded Vinyl is a material used for
Answer
A. Sound proof
28
Identify the material used for flooring.
Answer
D. all the above
29
The bricks used for the corners of the walls of a structure are called
Answer
C. Quoins
30
The defect of discoloration of timber due to over-maturity is called
Answer
D. Foxiness
31
When designing column bases, which of the following factors is not typically
considered ?
Answer
B. column height
32
Grillage foundations are most suitable for
Answer
B. Heavy concentrated loads
33
Which of the following types of loads is not typically considered in the design of roof
trusses ?
Answer
D. Thermal expansion load
34
What does the term βeffective lengthβ of a column refer to ?
Answer
B. The length that accounts for the columnβs end conditions
35
The partial safety factor for loads accounts for
Answer
A. Uncertainties in load estimation
36
What is the limiting value of maximum strain in concrete before it fails in compression
under normal circumstances ?
Answer
B. 0.0035
37
Which of the following factors affects the bond strength between concrete and
reinforcing steel ?
Answer
D. all of the above
38
In one-way slabs, reinforcement is primarily provided in
Answer
B. The shorter span direction
39
In a cantilever beam, the point of contraflexure occurs where
Answer
Question Cancelled
40
In an Rcc beam, the design shear strength is affected by
Answer
D. all of the above
41
What will be the surface area of the basin for a flow of 2 Γ 106 litres per day, having
a surface loading rate of 10,000 litres/day/m2 ?
Answer
B. 200
42
For a water treatment plant having a flow rate of 432 m3/hr, what is the required plan
area of type-I settling tank to remove 90% of the particles having a settling velocity
of 0.12 cm/sec is
Answer
C. 90 m2
43
The runoff in cumec by the rational method is defined by
Answer
A. Q = K Γ A Γ I Γ R
44
What is the permissible negative head loss of a rapid sand filter ?
Answer
D. 0.8 β 1.2 m
45
What is the maximum design flow of sewage in a septic tank ?
Answer
A. 70 liters per person per day
46
Sewage treatment in an oxidation pond is accomplished primarily by
Answer
A. algal-bacterial symbiosis
47
The ratio of actual evapo-transpiration to potential evapo-transpiration is in the
range
Answer
C. 0.0 to 1.0
48
In unit hydrograph, the magnitude of effective rainfall is
Answer
C. 1.0 cm
49
The rain guage used for measuring rain in hilly inaccessible areas is
Answer
A. Tipping bucket rain guage
50
a ground water body which is separated from the main ground water by an
impermeable layer is
Answer
D. Perched aquifer
51
Which urban phenomenon is most directly addressed by the application of cool roofs
and permeable pavements in architectural planning ?
Answer
B. Urban heat Island effect
52
What was the major result of the Earth Summit held in Rio in 1992, which is a daring
program of action calling for new strategies to invest in the future to achieve overall
sustainable development in the 21st century ?
Answer
C. agenda 21
53
What was the global significance of the Brundtland report published in 1987 ?
Answer
D. It introduced the term sustainable development
54
A building achieves LEED certification primarily by
Answer
B. Reducing operational energy and environmental impact
55
Which statement aligns with the idea of βlife cycle energyβ in buildings ?
Answer
D. Total energy from construction to demolition including operation
56
Which building material innovation is most directly linked to Hassan Fathyβs
architectural ideology in βarchitecture for the Poorβ ?
Answer
A. mud brick vaults using Nubian techniques
57
according to EcBc 2017, which glazing types is recommended to minimize heat
gain and optimize visual comfort in hot climates ?
Answer
C. double-glazed low-emissivity glass
58
In GRIHA rating for affordable housing, which of the following earns specific points ?
Answer
D. Efficient use and reuse of water
59
Which of the following design strategies is most essential in disaster resilient housing
promoted by cBRI, Roorkee ?
Answer
A. Plinth band and corner reinforcement in masonry
60
Which of the following best demonstrates integrated sustainability and
cost-effectiveness in mass housing developments ?
Answer
B. application of standardized modular units with passive ventilation
61
The value that indicates the average rate of heat transfer into a building through the
building envelope.
Answer
A. OTTV
62
The temperature at which motionless saturated air would induce, in a sedentary worker
wearing ordinary indoor clothing, the same sensation of comfort as that induced by
the actual conditions of temperature, humidity and air movement.
Answer
D. Effective temperature
63
The instrument used for measuring mRT
Answer
D. Globe thermometer
64
The rate of heat transfer that occurs through a unit thickness of material for a unit
area subjected to a unit difference in temperature
Answer
A. Thermal conductivity
65
Which of the following has a high albedo value ?
Answer
A. Snow
66
Thermal comfort index developed based on Indian subjects is
Answer
D. Tropical summer index
67
microclimate of a city is generally the climatic condition at
Answer
B. The first 100m above the ground surface
68
Grid iron pattern geometry design in city planning was followed by the city plan
Answer
A. mohenjo-daro
69
mattancherry palace is also called as
Answer
C. dutch palace
70
The coolest place or the βcentral placeβ in an agraharam is named as
Answer
B. Rezhi
71
The book βa New Theory of Urban designβ was authored by
Answer
C. Christopher Alexander
72
Key principles of placemaking in urban design include
Answer
D. all of the above
73
βagoraβ in ancient Greek cities refers to
Answer
A. Public space that served as meeting place for various activities of greek citizens
74
Urban morphology is the study of
Answer
D. all of the above
75
core principles of Transit Oriented development (TOd) are
Answer
A. Walk, cycle, connect, transit, mix, densify, compact and shift
76
circular economy in architecture conservation focuses on
Answer
D. all of the above
77
The non-profit organisation setup to protect and preserve Indiaβs living, built and
natural hertitage
Answer
C. Indian National Trust for art and cultural Heritage (INTacH)
78
Which of the following is not involved in the architecture conservation process ?
Answer
C. deconstruction
79
UNEScO recognises practices, expressions, knowledge and skills passed down
through generations as
Answer
A. Intangible cultural heritage
80
architecture conservation directly contributes to which one of the Sustainable
development Goals (SdGβs) ?
Answer
B. SdG 11(Sustainable cities and Human Settlements)
81
Which of the following is an example of structure-borne noise ?
Answer
B. Vibration from a washing machine
82
What is the typical audible frequency range for a healthy human ear ?
Answer
C. 20 β 20,000 Hz
83
Which factor does not affect the speed of sound in air ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
84
a Noise criteria (Nc) curve is used to evaluate
Answer
B. Acceptable background noise in offices
85
If a roomβs volume is 200 cu.m. and total absorption is 50sabins, RT60 is
Answer
A. 0.644s
86
Which of the following is true as per census of India 2011 ?
Answer
A. Growth of urban population is higher than that of rural population
87
From the following descriptions find out which area may not be categorised as
urban area ?
Answer
B. 60% of male working population in an area are engaged in agricultural pursuits and
a density of the area is 200 persons per sq. km
88
By 2011 which state had a share of 13.5% of urban population ?
Answer
A. maharashtra
89
Which of the following is the scope and purpose of a development plan as per URdPFI
guidelines ?
Answer
C. To prepare a comprehensive plan for urban areas, peri urban areas under control
of development authority/metropolitan Planning committee
90
Build Operate Transfer is a type of PPP. It has many variants. Which of the following
is not a variant of BOT ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
91
Providing low-income groups with a plot and basic infrastructure such as water, roads
and sanitation is called
Answer
D. Site and services
92
Under the Right to Fair compensation and Transparency in land acquisition,
Rehabilitation and Resettlement (RFcTlaRR) act, 2013, which of the following
officers are not involved in land acquisition and rehabilitation ?
Answer
D. mayor
93
design of a community focused on creating a central green space, surrounded by
homes, streets and alleys, located on the periphery creating a pedestrian friendly
environment was experimented in which of the following plans ?
Answer
C. Radburn
94
Which of the following are the characteristics of Magarpetta, Pune ?
1. IT offices
2. Land pooling
3. TOD
4. Localised waste treatment
Answer
C. 1, 2, 4 only
95
Which organisation is designated as a New Town development authority for Navi
mumbai ?
Answer
B. city and Industrial development corporation
96
curitiba in Brazil is famous for
Answer
C. BRTS and pedestrianisation
97
Which of the following is not a principle of New Urbanism ?
Answer
B. land use segregation
98
Which of the following treaty deals with disaster risk reduction ?
Answer
A. The Sendai framework
99
Which Sustainable development Goal aims at making cities and urban settlements
inclusive, safe , resilient and sustainable ?
Answer
D. Goal no. 11
100
Who advocated for close observation as the way to discover and work with the
relationship among place, work and folk and developed a new approach to regional
and town planning based on the integration of people and their livelihood into the
environment of the particular place and region they inhabit ?
Answer
B. Patrick Geddess
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