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Kerala PSC Associate Professor/Reader in Forencis Medicine and Toxicology Previous Question Paper – 063/2024/OL

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Post NameAssociate Professor/Reader in Forencis Medicine and Toxicology
Question Paper Code063/2024/OL
Category Code169/2023
Date of Test14 June 2024
Exam TypeOnline Examination
Total Questions100
1
Match the following persons with their contribution field in Forensic Medicine: I. Sir Robert Christison a. Forensic Entomology II. Azizul Haque and Hem Chandra Bose b. Forensic Pathology III. Jean Pierre Megnin c. Case of Burke and Hare IV. Ambroise Pare d. Dactylography
Answer
B. I-c; II-d; III-a; IV-b
2
Dental formula of a child brought for medicolegal examination represented in modified FDI formula is as follows : Which of the following statement/s about this child is/are correct? I. Unsworn evidence is admissible in court of law II. Abandonment of this child by parents is punishable with 2 years imprisonment under S.317 IPC III. This child is not criminally responsible IV. This child can give valid consent for clinical examination
Answer
A. Only statement I is correct
3
Which of the following parameter is an important sex differentiating feature even in early foetal life?
Answer
C. Sciatic notch index
4
The technique applied to determine whether the skull is that of the person in the photograph is called:
Answer
D. Superimposition technique
5
Which of the following statement/s is/are true regarding finger print system? I. First fingerprint Bureau was established in Mumbai II. Fingerprint pattern of identical twins will be similar III. Formation of finger print pattern completes in intrauterine life itself IV. First case where fingerprints used for identification is Francisca Rojas case
Answer
D. Statements III and IV are correct
6
A suspected stain from a crime scene is placed on a glass slide and added a reagent containing water, NaOH, pyridine and glucose and then covered with a cover slip. When examined under microscope, it showed pink feathery crystals. It could be due to the formation of:
Answer
B. Pyridine ferroprotoporphyrin
7
Match the following: I. Daniel McNaughten a. Product test II. Monte Durham b. Lack of capacity to confirm the conduct III. Donald K Currens c. Wild beast test IV. Edward Arnold d. Right or wrong test
Answer
C. I-d; II-a; III-b; IV-c
8
Testamentary capacity is _________.
Answer
B. Ability of a person to make a valid will
9
A 40-year-old man accused in a case of bribery was admitted to your hospital with complaints of sudden onset of irritability, talkativeness and abnormal abusive behaviour. His symptoms and signs do not satisfy criteria of any of the mental illness. His sleep became normal in two days of hospital stay. His symptoms are more when he was examined by the doctor. Which of the following can be used to identify his condition?
Answer
D. Miller Forensic Assessment of Symptoms Test
10
All the following comes under a "false personal unshaken belief in contrary to proof" Except
Answer
A. Bernheim syndrome
11
A 20 year old lady has frequent and recurrent episodes of binge eating, self-induced vomiting and use of purgatives is suffering from which of the following condition?
Answer
A. Bulimia nervosa
12
The special technique used to demonstrate intravascular fat in cases of suspected fat embolism during postmortem examination is _________.
Answer
C. Robb-Smith's technique
13
A man and a woman were found dead in a car parked in a closed garage. The engine of the car was found started and air condition was in on position. During postmortem examination postmortem staining appeared cherry red in colour. Choose the special viscera to be preserved in this case to find out the cause of death.
Answer
C. Spleen
14
The method used to assess the stature of a person when unknown fragmented long bones recovered were brought to you for examination.
Answer
B. Steel's formula
15
Which of the following section of Criminal Procedure Code concerned with the inquiry by a magistrate into the cause of death?
Answer
A. 176
16
Read the following statements and choose the best option: I. Rectified spirit is not used as a preservative for viscera in phenol poisoning. II. Organic acids are soluble in rectified spirit.
Answer
D. Both statements are correct and II is the explanation for I
17
A psychiatrist is asked to disclose a patient's communication made during a consultation, by the police. Which of the following is the most appropriate response?
Answer
B. Refuse to disclose citing professional secrecy.
18
An exception for professional misconduct
Answer
B. Charge is brought before Court of Law
19
Which of the following elements is not required to prove negligence in a civil case?
Answer
B. Intent to cause harm
20
A patient who neglects a wound on his foot caused by doctor's negligence which in turn leads to aggravation of the damage resulted in amputation of the foot, will not be entitled to recover damages under,
Answer
B. Doctrine of Avoidable consequence rule
21
In last clear chance doctrine
Answer
A. Limits the scope of contributory negligence as defense by the doctor.
22
Consent of an insane person is invalid according to
Answer
C. Sec. 90 IPC
23
A doctor takes consent before surgical procedures and he may go beyond the consent if he feels that it is needed for the patient's benefit is termed as
Answer
D. Doctrine of extended consent
24
Punishment for causing death by medical negligence is by
Answer
A. Section 304 A IPC
25
Regarding State Medical Council, all are true except
Answer
C. To conduct medical research
26
A doctor is legally bound to report
Answer
D. All of the above
27
If a patient requests for his medical record, it should be issued with in
Answer
C. 72 hrs.
28
Consent is not required in medical examination of
Answer
D. All the above
29
Bolam test is applicable in
Answer
B. Medical negligence
30
An exception to Res Ipsa Loquitor
Answer
A. Occurrence of utero vesicle fistula in repeated caesarian section
31
A doctor should not discriminate while giving priority for treatment of a patient on any ground other than emergency is stated in
Answer
B. Geneva convention 1949
32
Molecular death
Answer
B. Occurs piecemeal
33
Sudden death is when death occurs
Answer
B. Within 24 hours after the onset of terminal illness
34
Which among the following is true regarding Rigor Mortis?
Answer
C. Is independent of integrity of nervous system
35
Which statement is true regarding adipocere formation?
Answer
D. All the above
36
Paltaufs hemorrhages are usually present in about 50% of cases in
Answer
A. Lower lobes of lungs
37
Burking is
Answer
D. Combination of smothering and traumatic asphyxia
38
Mechanism of death in cafƩ coronary is
Answer
B. Reflex cardiac arrest
39
Pseudoligature mark is
Answer
C. Skin fold resembling ligature mark
40
In hanging, ecchymosis alone in the grooving due to ligature material
Answer
B. have no significance as to whether hanging was caused during life or not
41
Which of the following is true?
Answer
D. All the above
42
Death usually occurs in starvation when
Answer
Question Cancelled
43
Death occurs in starvation
Answer
C. When 20% of body proteins are lost
44
In heat prostration
Answer
D. Patient usually recovers when removed from exposure and placed at rest
45
Paradoxical undressing is seen in
Answer
D. Hypothermia
46
In neonatal cold injury
Answer
A. Hemorrhagic tendency is manifested
47
Scab of abrasion appears reddish brown in
Answer
B. 2-3 days
48
Brown colour of contusion is due to
Answer
A. Haemosiderin
49
All are percolated contusion except
Answer
D. Kevorkian sign
50
The enzyme activity that increase as early as in one hour after sustaining injury is
Answer
B. Adenosinetriphosphatase
51
After sustaining an injury Treusta's shunt can occur in
Answer
Question Cancelled
52
Waddel's triad include all except
Answer
D. Fracture of Tibia
53
Harikiri is
Answer
B. Suicidal stab injury
54
Instrument used to examine the interior of a barrel in firearm
Answer
D. Helixometer
55
Sparrow foot marks are seen in
Answer
B. Windscreen impact
56
The commonest cause of the Bends is rapid release of gaseous
Answer
C. Nitrogen
57
Percentage of surface area of head and neck in a child of age 1 to 4 years, according to Lund and Browder is
Answer
B. 19
58
Wischnewsky Spots are seen in
Answer
C. Hypothermia
59
The bullet that leaves a visible mark while in flight is
Answer
B. Tracer bullet
60
Choking have the following effects except
Answer
B. Increases rate of spread of pellets
61
The Musket is a
Answer
B. Smooth bore shoulder arm
62
The desire to be identified as a member of the opposite sex is
Answer
C. Eonism
63
Rosenberg criteria is related to
Answer
C. Munchausen's syndrome by proxy
64
The process of aseptic autolysis is
Answer
B. Maceration
65
Choline iodide crystals appear in
Answer
A. Florence test
66
Sec. 318 IPC involves
Answer
D. Concealment of birth
67
Under 'Sexual Harassment of Women at Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013, when a woman gives complaint regarding sexual harassment, the inquiry process should be completed within a time period of
Answer
C. 90 days
68
Which of the following statement is/are incorrect about Lochia? (i) It is alkaline discharge (ii) It is acidic discharge (iii) It lasts for 2-3 months after delivery (iv) It resolves more rapidly in women who breast fed
Answer
C. Both (ii) and (iii)
69
'Buggery' is
Answer
A. Sodomy
70
'SAFE' Kit is used for
Answer
B. Examination of sexual assault survivors
71
Assisted reproductive technology (ART) is/are:
Answer
C. Both (1) and (2)
72
Which of the following statement/s is/are correct about vaginismus?
Answer
D. All the above
73
A male may be impotent with a particular female, but not with another
Answer
D. Quod hanc
74
Osiander's sign is positive at about __________ week of pregnancy
Answer
C. 8th
75
Which section of law deals with Police Inquest?
Answer
D. 174 Cr.PC
76
True about organ transplantation
Answer
D. All of the above
77
Example of a designer drug
Answer
A. MDMA
78
Regarding Consumer Protection Act, true is
Answer
D. Three-tier structure of consumer redressal mechanism
79
Flashback phenomenon is characteristic of
Answer
B. Lysergic acid diethylamide
80
The active principle of DATURA
Answer
A. Atropine
81
Regarding Homeopathy Central Council Act 1973 true statement is
Answer
D. All of the above
82
The most toxic part of Aconite
Answer
C. Root
83
Which of the following is not a cardiac glycoside?
Answer
D. Hyoscine
84
Which of the following is an organic irritant poison?
Answer
A. Calotropis
85
The statutory limit for alcohol in the blood while driving in India
Answer
A. 30 mg/dl
86
Substances used as War gases (i) Phosgene (ii) Lewisite (iii) Hydrocyanic acid
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
87
Which of the following is not true in carbon monoxide poisoning?
Answer
C. The presence of soot in the air passages is a reliable indicator
88
Marsh test is used for the detection of
Answer
C. Arsenic
89
All are clinical signs in chronic mercury poisoning except,
Answer
D. Raindrop pigmentation
90
Basophilic stippling is seen in poisoning with
Answer
C. Lead
91
Which of the following is true in snake bite management?
Answer
D. Immobilize the bitten limb
92
Xanthoproteic reaction is seen in poisoning with
Answer
B. Nitric acid
93
Which one of the following is a spinal poison?
Answer
B. Nux Vomica
94
Following are the medicolegal duties of a doctor in poisoning cases except
Answer
A. Issuing a death certificate
95
Ewald's tube is used for
Answer
C. Decontamination
96
Poison that produces miosis
Answer
B. Organophosphates
97
Regarding opium use, which among the following is true? (i) Respiratory depression in opium poisoning (ii) Gas chromatography can detect opiates in urine (iii) Withdrawal reaction seen in abrupt stoppage of opium intake (iv) Pinpoint pupil is characteristic of opium poisoning
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv)
98
In Cannabis use all are true except,
Answer
A. Physical dependence is more common
99
In poisoning with antipyretics all are true except
Answer
A. Activated charcoal is contraindicated in the management
100
Toxic principle in Abrus precatorius
Answer
A. Abrin

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