| Post Name | Associate Professor/Reader in Pathology and Microbiology |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 071/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 177/2023 |
| Date of Test | 25 June 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Patterns of nuclear changes in Necrosis include all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Cytoplasmic blebs
2
Main reactive oxygen species associated with damage of lipids, proteins and DNA
Answer
C. Hydroxyl radical
3
Examples of dystrophic calcification include all EXCEPT
Answer
D. Sarcoidosis
4
The cytokines mediating the systemic effects of inflammation are i. TNF ii. IL-1 iii. IL-6
Answer
D. all of the above
5
Main difference between primary and secondary healing is
Answer
C. Wound contraction in secondary
6
Critical mediator of macrophage activation which results in granuloma formation is
Answer
C. Interferon gamma
7
Reduced plasma osmotic pressure is the main pathophysiologic mechanism of edema in all the following EXCEPT
Answer
A. Neoplasia
8
Bernard Soulier syndrome is a bleeding disorder associated with the deficiency of
Answer
B. Gp 1 b receptor
9
A 45 year old male underwent an abdominal surgery and was bedridden for 10 days. He suddenly developed dyspnoea and collapsed. He succumbed to death in a few minutes. The most probable diagnosis is
Answer
A. Pulmonary embolism
10
Red infarct occurs in
Answer
C. Lungs
11
Tissue most vulnerable to hypoxia is
Answer
B. Neuron
12
Warm and flushed skin may be associated with
Answer
C. Septic shock
13
Most common site of arterial thrombus is
Answer
A. Coronary A
14
Tuberculin reaction is an example of
Answer
D. Type 4 hypersensitivity
15
Hematologic manifestations of SLE include all the following EXCEPT
Answer
B. Neutropenia
16
Hallmark of a malignant tumor is
Answer
C. Metastasis
17
Cutaneous cancers are associated with exposure to
Answer
B. UV B
18
Migratory thrombophlebitis is most commonly associated with
Answer
C. Both of the above
19
Factors affecting the grade of a cancer include
Answer
D. All of the above
20
High risk HPV is associated with the development of cancer in the
Answer
D. All of the above
21
Type of necrosis associated with E. Histolytica induced liver abscess is
Answer
B. Liquifactive
22
Heart and brain are least affected in Leprosy because bacterial growth in these regions is inhibited by
Answer
A. High core temperature
23
In Kwashiorkor, liver is
Answer
B. Enlarged
24
Tissue atrophy occurs due to
Answer
B. Decreased protein synthesis
25
Main stimulus for cardiac hypertrophy is
Answer
A. Increased workload
26
What is the earliest light microscopic finding in myocardial infarction?
Answer
A. Waviness of myofibrils
27
Hallmark features of benign hypertension is
Answer
A. Hyaline arteriosclerosis
28
Most common type of emphysema clinically is
Answer
B. Centriacinar
29
Bronchopneumonia is grossly characterised by
Answer
D. Patchy consolidation of a lobe or lobes of one or both lungs
30
Which of the following is the most common cause of peptic ulcer disease?
Answer
C. Helicobacter pylori infection
31
Which of the following types of gallstones is most commonly associated with chronic haemolysis?
Answer
B. Pigment stones
32
Incubation period of hepatitis B is
Answer
B. 2 to 26 weeks
33
Which of the following is a characteristic finding in the renal biopsy of a patient with minimal change disease?
Answer
D. Effacement of podocyte foot processes
34
Commonest type of renal calculus is
Answer
D. Calcium stones
35
The characteristic inflammatory cell associated with chronic endometritis is
Answer
A. Plasma cell
36
Kimmelstiel-Wilson disease is associated with
Answer
A. PAS- positive nodules of matrix situated in the periphery of the glomerulus
37
A 35-year-old woman presents with a palpable thyroid gland and symptoms of hyperthyroidism. Laboratory studies reveal increased levels of thyroid hormones and thyroid-stimulating immunoglobulin (TSI). A thyroid biopsy shows diffuse hyperplasia of follicular cells and scalloping of the colloid. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
Answer
D. Grave's disease
38
What is the characteristic histopathological feature of Hashimoto thyroiditis?
Answer
C. Lymphocytic infiltration with germinal center formation
39
What is the characteristic histopathological feature in the adrenal glands of patients with cushing syndrome due to an iatrogenic cause?
Answer
B. Cortical atrophy
40
Hypersegmented neutrophils are seen in
Answer
D. Megaloblastic anemia
41
Auer rods are numerous in which subtype acute myeloid leukemia (AML)?
Answer
C. Acute promyelocytic leukemia
42
A peripheral smear with increased neutrophils, basophils, eosinophils and platelets are highly suggestive of
Answer
B. Chronic myeloid leukemia
43
'Smudge cells' are seen in
Answer
D. Chronic lymphocytic leukemia
44
Which of the following laboratory tests are used to diagnose hemophilia A?
Answer
A. Activated partial thromboplastin time (aPTT) and factor VIII level
45
Glucose contents of CSF is unaltered in the following type of meningitis
Answer
B. Acute viral meningitis
46
Which of the following statements about hereditary spherocytosis (HS) is/are correct? i. HS is an autosomal recessive disorder characterized by defects in proteins involved in the spectrin, ankyrin and band 3 protein of the red cell membrane ii. HS is an autosomal dominant disorder characterized by defects in proteins involved in the spectrin, ankyrin and band 3 protein of the red cell membrane. iii. HS is associated with spherocytes, which are smaller and more dense than normal red cells and have a decreased surface-to-volume ratio
Answer
B. ii and iii correct
47
Which of the following features is commonly seen in multiple sclerosis (MS) on microscopy?
Answer
A. Perivascular lymphocytic infiltrates
48
The new bone formed around the devitalized, infected bone is known as
Answer
A. involucrum
49
The following type of naevi most often progress to malignant melanoma
Answer
C. Dysplastic naevus
50
The most common type of wart is
Answer
C. Verruca vulgaris
51
The taxonomy of bacteria refers specifically to
Answer
D. All of the above
52
Phylogenetic criteria for classification of bacteria is based on the results of
Answer
B. DNA-DNA Hybridization
53
The exotoxins are classified as
Answer
B. Cytolytic, bipartite
54
According to Spaulding's classification, semi-critical devices ideally require :
Answer
A. HLD
55
'Squeezing the balloon' refers to
Answer
C. AMSP
56
Reserve Drugs include all except
Answer
C. Avibactum
57
Transmission based precautions to be followed for mycoplasma pneumonia
Answer
B. Droplet precautions
58
Environmental surveillance of Air, water, surface is indicated in
Answer
C. both 1 and 2
59
Intrinsic resistance relates to all except
Answer
C. Pseudomonas-Meropenem
60
Pareto charts are used in
Answer
D. AMSP
61
Nude mice refers to all except
Answer
D. Accepts body hair
62
Innate immunity includes all except
Answer
C. JAK
63
Sequestered antigens include all except
Answer
A. Spleen
64
Job's syndrome is an example of disorder of
Answer
B. Phagocytosis
65
Subunit vaccines include all except
Answer
C. HEV
66
Rosalyn Yalow was awarded the Nobel Prize in physiology in 1977 for
Answer
B. RIA
67
VDJ genes code for all of the following except
Answer
D. TAP
68
Most common mode of inheritance of complement deficiencies
Answer
B. Autosomal recessive
69
Primer-Dimers in PCR are most commonly seen with
Answer
A. SYBR Green 1
70
Which is the wrong combination?
Answer
D. HEX-ORF lab
71
Pus aspirate from a case of breast abscess sent for culture and sensitivity yielded Staph. Aureus with a sensitivity as given below. Which is the most appropriate antibiotic to be used to treat the patient? pencillin-resistant; linezolid-sensitive; cefoxitin-sensitive; gentamicin-sensitive
Answer
C. Cloxacillin
72
Following statements are incorrect about acute rheumatic fever i. it is multi-system disease ii. blood culture is diagnostic iii. occurs in persons who had streptococcal sore throat iv gram stain of throat swab can help in etiological diagnosis
Answer
B. ii and iv
73
Routine screening and treatment of asymptomatic bacteriuria are not indicated in i. old age ii. pregnancy iii. persons undergoing urolgical procedures iv. patients with indwelling catheter
Answer
B. i and iv
74
Undulent fever is caused by
Answer
C. Brucella abortus
75
Following bacteria causes painless genital ulcers i. T.pallidum ii. Gonococci iii. H.ducreyi iv. Klebsiella granulomatis
Answer
A. i and iv
76
Confirmatory lab investigation for diagnosis of enteric fever
Answer
C. Blood culture
77
Which of the following are NOT non-sporing Gram Positive Bacilli i. Cl. Tetani ii. Lactobacilli iii. B. fragilis iv. Mobiluncus
Answer
A. i and iii
78
Tick borne rickettsial disease includes
Answer
B. Rocky mountain spotted fever
79
Following are TRUE about IGRA i. used for diagnosis of latent TB ii. false positives occur after BCG vaccination iii. uses highly specific mycobacterial antigen iv. used for diagnosis of paediatric pulmonary TB
Answer
A. i and iii
80
Causative agents of Atypical pneumonia are i. H. influenzae ii. Ps. aeruginosa iii. Mycoplasma iv. Chlamydia
Answer
B. iii and iv
81
Which of the following statements regarding paracoccidioidomycosis are correct i. The etiological agent is a dimorphic fungus ii. The etiological agent is inherently resistant to amphotericin B iii. Although the infection is acquired by inhalation and is initiated in the lungs, many patients develop cutaneous and mucocutaneous lesions iv. The majority of patients with active diseases are males
Answer
A. only i, iii and iv
82
Which of the following statements regarding the laboratory identification of fungi are wrong? i. Histoplasma capsulatum typically requires less than 48 hrs of incubation to yield positive cultures from clinical specimens ii. Thick-walled round yeast cells with single broad based budding are seen in blastomycosis iii. Tiny oval yeast cells with narrow based budding are seen in coccidioidomycosis iv. Asteroids bodies are observed in coccidioidomycosis
Answer
C. only i, iii and iv
83
A 30 year old vegetarian male patient presented with seizure, headache, vomiting and vertigo of recent onset. CT brain showed multiple calcifications in brain parenchyma. What could be the etiological agent?
Answer
B. Taenia solium
84
The pathologic effects of filariae in humans are due to adult worms in all the given species except
Answer
D. Onchocerca volvulus
85
Sabin-feldman dye test is used in the diagnosis of
Answer
B. Toxoplasmosis
86
Which of the following statements are wrong? i. Entameoba histolytica can be cultured in NNN medium ii. Mode of infection of dracunculus medinensis is skin penetration iii. River blindness is due to loa loa iv. Cysticercoid is the larval form of Taenia solium
Answer
D. all of the above
87
The causative agent of African sleeping sickness is
Answer
A. Trypanosoma brucei
88
How many flagella is present in trophozoite of Giardia lamblia?
Answer
C. Four pairs
89
A 32 year old male tourist travelled to Africa for I month. During the trip, he swam in the Gambia river. Two months after his return he developed intermittent abdominal pain with dysuria. Urine wet mount showed elliptical eggs with a sharp terminal spine. What is the drug of choice for the condition?
Answer
A. Praziquantel
90
A 54 year old man developed a slowly worsening headache followed by gradual progressive weakness in his right arm. MRI showed a cerebral lesion. At surgery an abscess was found. This infection may be caused by species of which genus below?
Answer
B. Cladophilophora
91
Following statements are true regarding antiviral prophylaxis in patients undergoing immunosuppressive therapy, EXCEPT
Answer
D. HBcr Ag negativity has significantly higher HBV reactivation rate
92
If an HIV infected adult maintains an undetectable viral load in quantitative RNA PCR testing, he should be considered as 1. Cured 2. CD4 T-lymphocyte count depleted 3. Unable to transmit disease 4. On an effective treatment regimen
Answer
C. 3 and 4 only
93
All the following virus/viral diseases are transmitted by Aedes mosquito EXCEPT
Answer
B. Japanese encephalitis
94
Which of the following vaccine is safe in a 58-year old female who had successful renal transplant 2 years ago
Answer
A. Hepatitis A
95
Choose the INCORRECT statement regarding cytomegalovirus
Answer
D. Cytomegalovirus is also known as Human Herpes virus 4
96
Choose the CORRECT statement/statements regarding influenza virus 1. Neuramnidase inhibitor is the drug of choice A/H1N1 2009 flu, A/H5Nlavian flue and influenza B 2. Category B and Category C influenza A/H1N1require immediate hospitalisation 3. CDC recommends that people with influenza should remain home until 24 hours are free of fever without the use of fever reducing medications 4. A/H7N9 is the most common avian flu strain that was endemic the world for past 15 years
Answer
B. 1 and 3 only
97
NOT TRUE regarding injectable polio vaccine :
Answer
A. It is useful during epidemics
98
HIV 2 shows innate resistance to which class of antiretrovirals
Answer
A. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitors
99
TRUE statements about parvo B 19 infection
Answer
D. all of the above
100
Which of the following is true for rabies?
Answer
B. Death have occurred post-transplant
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