| Post Name | Associate Professor/Reader in Practice of Medicine - Govt Homoeopathic Medical Colleges |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 072/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 168/2023 |
| Date of Test | 25 June 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
A residence of filaria-endemic region is suffering from paroxysmal cough, nocturnal wheezing, low grade fever, lymphadenopathy, blood eosinophilia, miliary lesion in chest x-ray findings. Most probable cause is
Answer
C. Tropical Pulmonary Eosinophilia
2
Seizure occurs in a case of neurocysticercosis when location of cysticerci in which of the following
Answer
C. Brain parenchyma
3
Most common site of spinal tuberculosis in children
Answer
D. Upper thoracic vertebra
4
Most common complications in HIV infection
Answer
B. Bacterial Pneumonia
5
CURB-65 criteria is used for assessing severity of following disease
Answer
C. Pneumonia
6
Which type of anaemia is present in severe falciparum malaria?
Answer
C. Normochromic normocytic
7
When prolonged PR Interval in ECG would be considered as major criteria for acute rheumatic fever according to jones criteria
Answer
A. Absence of Carditis
8
Which serological test is indicted in acute hepatitis B infection?
Answer
D. All of above
9
Kawasaki disease presents following
Answer
D. All of above
10
Among the following which is least warning sign in Dengue
Answer
B. Rash
11
Which serological test is greater accuracy in enteric fever?
Answer
A. Typhi Dot
12
Most common feature of 'Long Covid' is one of the following
Answer
A. Fatigue
13
CorkScrew Hair is found in deficiency of which nutrient?
Answer
D. Vitamin C
14
Which is not true for Wilson disease?
Answer
A. High serum ceruloplasmin
15
Single most common cause of chronic renal failure
Answer
B. Diabetic nephropathy
16
Long term indicator of glycaemic control in T2DM is
Answer
A. HBa1c
17
ECG findings in hyperkalaemia
Answer
A. Tall peaked T wave
18
A patient of type II diabetes mellitus for 10 years is complaining of dryness of foot and excessive perspiration in upper extremities - most likely cause is
Answer
B. Autonomic neuropathy
19
Which is not found in Felty's syndrome?
Answer
D. Thrombocytopenia
20
Definitive diagnosis of acute gout is
Answer
D. Needle aspiration of joints or tophi
21
In the Los Angeles classification of GERD 'circumferential mucosal break' indicates which of the following grades of GERD?
Answer
D. Grade-D
22
Ascites in the absence of Cirrhosis of liver is produced by all EXCEPT
Answer
A. Coeliac disese
23
Which one among the following is NOT a common cause of Acute pancreatitis?
Answer
D. Mumps
24
Which part of the GIT is mostly affected in Coeliac disease?
Answer
B. Proximal part of small intestine
25
In Crigler-Najjar syndrome - Type-1, which one of the following enzymes is completely absent?
Answer
A. Glucuronosyl transferse (UDPGT)
26
Model for End Stage Liver Disease (MELD) score of more than ____________ is an indication for liver transplantation
Answer
D. 15
27
According to the modified West-Haven criteria for grading hepatic encephalopathy, a patient in Hepatic encephalopathy with altered level of consciousness, confusion, disorientation, amnesia and abnormal EEG indicate
Answer
C. Grade-3
28
The term 'Portal Hypertension' is applied when the portal venous pressure exceeds
Answer
A. 12 mm of Hg
29
One of the following is NOT a characteristic feature of acute nephritic syndrome
Answer
D. Hypotension
30
Renal Glycosuria is associated with all the following, EXCEPT
Answer
B. High risk of developing diabetes mellitus
31
Which one among the following is NOT a characteristic feature of membranous nephropathy?
Answer
C. No circulating auto antibodies are present
32
Most common organism resonsible for acute uncomplicated cystitis in women is
Answer
C. E coli
33
Which type of thyroid carcinoma is most frequently seen
Answer
A. Papillary carcinoma
34
In secondary hypothyroidism, the TSH level is
Answer
C. Low
35
24 hour urinary free cortisol test is a highly sensitive test for the diagnosis of
Answer
B. Cushing syndrome
36
In hypoparathyroidism, ECG shows
Answer
A. Prolonged QT interval
37
The most important laboratory finding in chronic lymphocytic thyroiditis is
Answer
D. High levels of thyroglobulin antibody and antithyroid microsomal antibody
38
WHO criteria for normal semen analysis include all the following EXCEPT
Answer
C. Fructose level of 5 mol or less per ejaculate
39
Increased 'Heel Pad Thickness' of more than 22 mm is a feature of
Answer
B. Acromegaly
40
The arrhythmia, commonly seen in thyrotoxicosis is
Answer
A. Atrial fibrillation
41
In rheumatology, reduction in C3 complement level suggests
Answer
B. Active SLE
42
The most frequent haematological manifestation of SLE is
Answer
A. Anaemia
43
In Rheumatoid arthritis, DAS 28 ESR score of more than 5.1 indicates
Answer
C. High disease activity
44
The most frequent clinical manifestation of SLE is
Answer
D. Arthritis
45
Currently, the common cause of Charcot's joint is
Answer
B. Diabetes mellitus
46
In the diagnosis of which condition, Phalen's Sign is elicited?
Answer
C. Carpal tunnel syndrome
47
Ortolani's sign detects
Answer
A. Congenital hip dislocation in infants
48
In synovial fluid analysis, a WBC count of more than 1 lakh/cumm indicates
Answer
C. Infective arthritis
49
'Pulsus bisferiens' commonly found in
Answer
C. Both Aortic stenosis and Aortic regurgitation
50
Continuous 'to-and-fro' murmur found in
Answer
D. PDA
51
In WPW, commonest type of tachycardia is
Answer
B. Orthodromic tachycardia
52
Prevalence of MI, unstable angina is greatest during
Answer
A. Morning
53
Which is not a criterion of 'Modified Sgarbossa'?
Answer
B. Concordant T elevation ≥ 0.5 mm in ≥ 1 lead
54
Commonest form of primary Tricuspid regurgitation
Answer
C. Infective endocarditis with IV drug use
55
In cardiac cause, CK-MB : total CK is
Answer
A. > 2.5
56
Valve is most registrant to acquired heart disease
Answer
B. Pulmonary
57
Chagas disease is commonest cause of ____________ in endemic countries
Answer
B. CHF
58
Cardiomyopathy associated with inadequate dietary selenium intake
Answer
C. Keshan disease
59
Patau syndrome : chromosome defect
Answer
B. Trisomy 13
60
Holt-Oram syndrome also known as
Answer
D. Hand heart syndrome
61
Alveolar ventilation is best assessed by measuring
Answer
B. PaCO₂
62
All of the following are useful for treating acute bronchial asthma in children except
Answer
C. Theophylline inhalation
63
Hypersensitivity pneumonitis also known as
Answer
A. Extrinsic allergic alveolitis
64
Antigen for Cheese Washer's lung
Answer
B. Penicillium casei
65
Commonest presentation of bronchiectasis is
Answer
C. Hemoptysis
66
Commonest anticoagulant used for 'bridging'
Answer
D. Warfarin
67
Exudative pleural effusions meet at least one of the following except :
Answer
B. Pleural fluid protein > 1/3 of normal upper limit of serum
68
Commnest indication for adult lung transplantation
Answer
B. COPD
69
In sleep apnea, cataplexy found in
Answer
C. Narcolepsy
70
Milky effluent, foamy macrophages; Schiff's stain +ve
Answer
A. Alveolar proteinosis
71
Cystic fibrosis is _____________ disease.
Answer
B. Autosomal recessive
72
Which infection typically occur in healthycare settings?
Answer
A. Acinetobacter baumannii
73
In neurotransmission, entry of _____________ causes the fusion of synaptic vesicles containing neurotransmitters with the presynaptic membrane and release of the neurotransmitters across the synaptic cleft.
Answer
B. Calcium
74
As neurotransmitter histamine acts as
Answer
B. Inhibitory
75
In tubercular meningitis, CSF remain at least < ____________% of blood level.
Answer
C. 60
76
Gum hypertrophy, hirsutism, osteomalacia, neuropathy, etc. are the long-term side effects of which anticonvulsive
Answer
D. Phenytoin
77
In lower motor neuron paralysis, fibrillation can be found clinically on inspection
Answer
C. Tongue
78
'Scanning' speech associated with
Answer
C. Ataxic limbs and gait tremor of head/limbs
79
Ipsilateral nerve palsy of Claude syndrome is also associated with
Answer
B. Contralateral cerebellar signs
80
Duchene dystrophy clinical features found in
Answer
A. Male only
81
All are features of seizure except
Answer
B. Disorientation and sleepiness <5 minutes
82
All are less common causes of dementia, except
Answer
B. Diffuse white matter disease
83
All are secondary Parkinsonism, except
Answer
C. Wilson's disease
84
Fasting lactate, pyruvate, ammonia, mtDNA analysis done for which etiological Motor Neuron Disease?
Answer
D. Mitochondrial dysfunction
85
Which of the statements are most correct about Addisonian pernicious anemia?
Answer
C. Anemia due to failure of intrinsic factor secretion by stomach due to autoimmune disease
86
Which of the following represents Philadelphia chromosome?
Answer
A. t (9 : 22)
87
Thrombocytopenia is seen in the following conditions
Answer
A. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura
88
Take out the correct statement about hepcidin
Answer
B. It is an iron regulating hormone
89
Lab investigations in a patient showed low Hb, decreased MCH&MCV and high levels of Serum ferritin. The most likely diagnosis is
Answer
B. Thalassemia
90
Coomb's test can be used to detect which types of Anemia?
Answer
A. Haemolytic Anemia
91
Sickle cell anemia is due to which of the following amino acid substitution?
Answer
C. Valine in place of glutamic acid
92
Which of the following is an Acquired hemolytic anemia?
Answer
D. Autoimmune Hemolytic anemia
93
Reed-Sternberg cells are the pathological hallmark of
Answer
B. Hodgkin's disease
94
Which of the following is not a feature of Myeloma?
Answer
D. Hypocalcaemia
95
Catania refers to which of the following?
Answer
D. All the above
96
Take out the wrong match
Answer
B. Obsessive compulsive neurosis-delusional perception
97
Dysthymic disorders are characterized by
Answer
D. All the above
98
Which of the following is wrong about Apgar score?
Answer
C. Apgar scores are better than umbilical cord blood gases for assessing asphyxiated babies
99
The infant's first social smile develops at the age of :
Answer
A. 2 months
100
Turner's syndrome is characterized by
Answer
C. Bilateral streak gonads
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