| Post Name | Associate Professor/Reader in Surgery - Govt Homoeopathic Medical Colleges |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 073/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 174/2023 |
| Date of Test | 26 June 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Morel Lavallee lesions are caused due to
Answer
A. Shearing force on subcutaneous tissue
2
Use of hydrocolloid dressing promotes wound healing by
Answer
C. Promoting enzymatic debridement
3
A 41 year old has undergone open cardiac massage during resuscitation. What class of surgical wound does he have ?
Answer
B. Class III
4
Hard callus is formed by
Answer
A. Osteoblasts
5
Early inļ¬ammatory phase is charaterised by
Answer
A. Neutrophils
6
Normal skin ratio of Type I to Type III collagen is
Answer
B. 4:1
7
Which of the following is not component of the Sepsis Six ?
Answer
D. Arterial Blood Gas Analysis
8
56 year old diabetic male presented with redness and swelling of his right lower limb for 2 days. There is no ulceration or pus discharge. There is evidence of red streaks over the limb. What is the most likely diagnosis ?
Answer
C. Lymphangitis
9
Postoperative abscesses are seen most commonly after
Answer
C. 7 days
10
Which is a false statement regarding gas gangrene ?
Answer
A. It is caused by Gram negative, anaerobic bacilli
11
A patient presented with blunt abdominal trauma with severe pallor and abdominal distension. He is hemodynamically unstable. Which is an unlikely ļ¬nding in this patient ?
Answer
C. Low Base Deļ¬cit
12
Endocrine shock is a combination of all except
Answer
C. Obstructive shock
13
Ischemia Reperfusion is caused mainly due to
Answer
B. K+
14
A 24 year old male presented with a traumatic amputation of right lower limb. At presentation, he is drowsy with heart rate of 115 per minute and systolic BP 100/60 mmHg. His urine output is 32 mL/h. What is the diagnosis ?
Answer
C. Moderate uncompensated shock
15
A 24 year old man attends a blood donation drive. His blood is separated to components and stored. Which of the following is true ?
Answer
A. Packed red cells can be stored upto 5 weeks in SAG-M solution
16
Which of the following is not indicated in hemorrhagic shock resuscitation ?
Answer
B. 5% Dextrose
17
A 30 year old man suļ¬ered trauma to his lower limb and is estimated to have lost about 1 L of blood before application of a tourniquet and control of bleeding. What category of hemorrhagic shock is the patient in ?
Answer
B. Class 2
18
A patient underwent thyroidectomy and was shifted to postoperative ward. At night, he was noted to have an increased bloody drain and dyspnoea. What type of hemorrhage is it ?
Answer
C. Reactionary hemorrhage
19
A patient was brought to casualty with history of abdominal trauma. He had pallor, tachycardia and hypotension unresponsive to ļ¬uids. He was shifted to the operation theatre and underwent laparotomy where he was found to have liver lacerations. What is the next step ?
Answer
D. Packing of all quadrants
20
Occult hypoperfusion can be identiļ¬ed by
Answer
B. Lactate levels
21
With the mouth wide open and tongue protruded in a patient in sitting position, if only the soft palate and base of uvula are seen, his airway is classiļ¬ed as Mallampati class
Answer
C. Class III
22
American Society of Anesthesiologists physical status (ASA-PA) 6 would be appropriate to describe the following patient
Answer
D. Brain dead patient for organ donation
23
All the following statements about mediastinal emphysema are true except
Answer
B. Mediastinal drain is to be inserted
24
Features of tension pneumothorax include all the following except
Answer
C. Dull note on percussion
25
Extend FAST (E-FAST) is used for assessing
Answer
A. Pneumothorax
26
In a mass casualty setting, green colour in triage indicates,
Answer
B. Ambulatory patient
27
Which one of the following is true about burns resuscitation ?
Answer
D. Half of the calculated ļ¬uid given in ļ¬rst 8 hours
28
Which one of the following is considered as ļ¬uid of choice in burns management ?
Answer
B. Ringer lactate
29
A patient presented in casualty with third degree circumferential burns involving arm and forearm. Which one of the following is most important for monitoring ?
Answer
D. Peripheral pulses and circulation
30
Which one of the following is not true about split skin grafting ?
Answer
A. Less contraction and scar
31
Human skin allografts are commonly obtained from,
Answer
A. Cadavers through skin bank
32
Which one of the following is the most common type so retroperitoneal sarcoma ?
Answer
D. Liposarcoma
33
Which one of the following is not considered as high risk for deep vein thrombosis ?
Answer
C. General surgery in patients <30 years on OCPs
34
Post operative patient developed deep vein thrombosis, what is the initial management ?
Answer
D. Intravenous heparin therapy
35
All the following features seen in Kasabach-Merrit syndrome except
Answer
A. Thrombocytosis
36
All the following statements regarding lymphoedema precox are correct, except
Answer
A. Commonly seen before 1st year of life
37
Necrotizing lymphadenitis typically seen in
Answer
B. Kikuchi's disease
38
Which one of the following electrolyte contribute most to the osmolality of plasma ?
Answer
A. Sodium
39
Hypercalcemia may be seen in the following conditions except
Answer
D. Chronic renal failure
40
Which one of the following is not correct in case of carcinoma of pancreas ?
Answer
C. Periampullary carcinoma is the most common variety
41
Most common tumour of minor salivary gland is
Answer
C. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
42
Which of the following is not correct in case of Warthin's tumour ?
Answer
D. Malignant potential is 10-20%
43
"Starch lodine test" is done to diagnose
Answer
B. Frey's syndrome
44
Which one of the following nerve is not at risk during submandibular sialadenectomy ?
Answer
B. Glossopharyngeal nerve
45
Most common location of ectopic submandibular salivary gland tissue is
Answer
C. Angle of mandible
46
Newman and Seabrook's operation is done for
Answer
A. Parotid duct ļ¬stula
47
Which one of the following salivary gland malignancy is associated with perineural spread ?
Answer
D. Adenoid cystic carcinoma
48
Treatment of choice for severe ļ¬ail chest is
Answer
C. IPPV
49
Which one of the following hormone is not signiļ¬cantly increased in response to surgical stress ?
Answer
D. Dopamine
50
Which one of the following is not correct regarding parotid tumours ?
Answer
B. Treatment of choice for Warthin's tumor is enucleation
51
Among the following which one is the most common primary malignant tumour of thyroid
Answer
D. Follicular carcinoma
52
About Recurrent Laryngeal Nerve (RLN) which one is correct ?
Answer
C. A branch of vagus recurs around arch of aorta on left side
53
Well known vegetable goitrogen
Answer
B. Cabbage
54
Among the following, most common site of inferior parathyroid
Answer
A. Thyrothymic tract
55
Drug of choice in Pregnant women with hyper thyroidism
Answer
A. Propyl Thio Uracil (PTU)
56
Daily requirement of Iodine
Answer
C. 0.1-0.15 mg
57
After thyroidectomy permanent hypoparathyroidism is deļ¬ned as the continuing need for calcium replacement at (post operative)
Answer
D. One year
58
Which one is false ?
Answer
C. TSH is the only stimulus for thyroid follicular cell proliferation
59
For the surgeon, workhorse investigation in thyroid disease
Answer
B. Ultrasonography
60
Familial type of Medullary Carcinoma is usually associated with following except
Answer
D. Multiple mucosal lipoma
61
Which one of the following is not a cause of vocal cord palsy ?
Answer
A. Carcinoma right Lung
62
American College of Radiology-Thyroid Imaging Reporting and Data System (ACR-TIRADS) advice FNAC of highly suspicious nodule detected on USG if it is
Answer
B. 10 mm or more
63
ACR-TIRADS scoring system Maximum points of 3 given in all except
Answer
C. Wider than tall
64
BATHESDA classiļ¬cation system of interpretation of FNAC Benign lesion comes under
Answer
B. Category 2
65
What is Moebius Sign in Thyrotoxicosis ?
Answer
B. Loss of convergence of eye ball
66
Most active part of breast tissue
Answer
A. Terminal ductal lobular unit
67
The Montgomery's glands are (tubercles)
Answer
A. Modiļ¬ed sebaceous glands in the areola
68
Triple assessment in breast lump evaluation consists of
Answer
C. Clinical + imaging + pathology
69
25 yr old female presented with hard lump in right breast, imaging of choice ?
Answer
C. Ultrasonography
70
Blood stained nipple discharge seen in
Answer
C. Duct papilloma
71
Treatment of Mondor's disease
Answer
B. Restrict arm movements
72
High risk factor for breast carcinoma among the following
Answer
B. 58y/F, P2L0, menarche at 10 yrs, not attained menopause
73
In TNM staging involvement of chest wall includes all except
Answer
A. Invasion of pectoralis minor muscle
74
Most common type breast carcinoma is
Answer
A. Ductal carcinoma
75
Surgical classiļ¬cation of axillary lymph node based on
Answer
C. Pectoralis minor
76
Which among these is removed in Auchincloss modiļ¬ed radical mastectomy ?
Answer
D. None of the above
77
Types of carcinoma breast based on molecular markers
Answer
D. Claudin enriched
78
All are indications for adjuvant chemotherapy among the following except
Answer
A. Size <1 cm
79
All are treatment options for phyllodes tumour except
Answer
B. Modiļ¬ed Radical Mastectomy
80
Drug therapy administered for Her-2 nu positive disease include all except
Answer
D. Mitomicin
81
What is the incidence of faecolith and calculi in appendix, in case of gangrenous appendicitis with rupture ?
Answer
D. 90%
82
Which is the most sensitive and speciļ¬c symptom of acute appendicitis ?
Answer
A. Right lower quadrant abdominal pain
83
Which of the following is not used in Alvarado scoring system for diagnosing acute appendicitis ?
Answer
D. C reactive protein
84
Which of the following is not an incision for appendicectomy ?
Answer
D. Kochers incision
85
Most common late complication of appendicectomy
Answer
C. Adhesive intestinal obstruction
86
Name of inguinal hernia where acute appendicitis can happen within the hernia sac
Answer
C. Amyand's hernia
87
Which of the following types of hernia can present with urinary symptoms and retention of urine in the absence of benign prostatic hpertrophy
Answer
B. Hernia-en-glissade
88
What is the degree of hemorrhoids which prolapse but reduce spontaneously ?
Answer
B. Second degree
89
All are indications for upfront haemorrhoidectomy except
Answer
D. Second degree hemorrhoids
90
Fergusson technique of haemorrhoidectomy is
Answer
B. Closed technique
91
Which is the commonest type of ļ¬stula in ano ?
Answer
B. Inter-sphincteric ļ¬stula
92
STIR sequencing in MRI for evaluation of ļ¬stula in ano helps in
Answer
D. Avoiding contrast medium
93
Name of the classiļ¬cation used in ļ¬stula in ano
Answer
A. Park's
94
Which of the following procedure is used as advanced track identiļ¬cation and preparation before a deļ¬nitive surgical technique is performed in ļ¬stula in ano treatment ?
Answer
C. VAAFT
95
Which biological agent is used in treating perianal ļ¬stulas in Crohn's disease ?
Answer
D. Vedolizumab
96
Which is not a part of Charcot's triad ?
Answer
B. Intermittent malena
97
Which of the following dysfunction come under grade 2 cholecystitis as per the Tokyo Consensus Guidelines for severity grading of acute cholecystitis ?
Answer
A. Elevated white cell count more than 18000
98
All are indications for prophylactic cholecystectomy in asymptomatic gall stones except
Answer
B. Gall bladder stone more than 1 cm
99
Brown pigmented gall stones are associated with
Answer
C. Endoprostheses
100
What is tumbling sign in gall stone ileus in Plain x ray abdomen ?
Answer
D. A change in the position of a gallstone on serial ļ¬lms
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