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Kerala PSC Asst. Insurance Medical Officer- Insurance Medical Services Previous Question Paper – 017/2021

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Post NameASST. INSURANCE MEDICAL OFFICER- INSURANCE MEDICAL SERVICES
Question Paper Code017/2021
Category Code092/2020
Date of Test22 January 2021
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOMR Examination
Total Questions100
1
The junctional complex seen abundantly in Stratum Spinosum is ________.
Answer
D. Macula Adherens
2
Obelion is a point on ________.
Answer
A. Sagittal suture
3
A cerebellar glomerulus is formed of all the following, EXCEPT :
Answer
B. Purkinje Dendrite
4
Articularis genu is supplied by ________ nerve.
Answer
B. Femoral
5
Which Enzyme is deficient in Niemann Pick diseases ?
Answer
D. Sphingomyelinase
6
Which among the following inhibits Complex IV of Electron Transport Chain ?
Answer
C. Carbon monoxide
7
Which among the following is not a flavoprotein ?
Answer
B. Glutamate dehydrogenase
8
Which of the following is a non-heme iron compound ?
Answer
D. Ferritin A 3 017/2021
9
Select the FALSE Statement :
Answer
D. Ventricular premature beats interrupt the regular discharge of the SA node.
10
All of the following produce steatorrhea, EXCEPT :
Answer
A. Cholecystectomy
11
Primary adrenal insufficiency can be distinguished from secondary by
Answer
A. Diffuse tanning of the skin and spotty pigmentation
12
Select the WRONG statement from the following :
Answer
C. Merkel’s disc and Ruffini endings are examples of rapidly adapting receptors.
13
Criminal responsibility by a person is attained by the age of :
Answer
B. 7 years
14
Dermatoglyphics is a method to determine the following :
Answer
B. identity
15
The term p300 is related to :
Answer
A. brain fingerprinting
16
Endogenous burns are associated with :
Answer
B. low voltage electrocution
17
Serological test commonly used for diagnosis of scrub typhus
Answer
D. Weil Felix
18
Parasite in which man act as an intermediate host
Answer
C. Echinococcus granulosus
19
Which one of the following is a differential medium ?
Answer
D. Mac Conkey agar
20
Disease transmitted by Aedes aegypti
Answer
A. Dengue fever
21
Indian file morphology is characteristic of
Answer
B. Invasive lobular carcinoma
22
Brown atrophy of organs is related to
Answer
A. Lipofuscin
23
Extra nodal NK/T-cell Lymphoma Nasal type is characterised by all of the following, except :
Answer
D. Strong HTLV-1 Association
24
Which is not a feature of Sub Ependymal Giant cell Astrocytoma ?
Answer
C. Rapidly growing tumors with invasion into adjacent cerebral structures
25
All the following statements regarding Linezolid are true, except :
Answer
A. It is primarily bactericidal.
26
Lubiprostone is used in the treatment of
Answer
C. Irritable bowel syndrome
27
Voglibose acts by inhibiting
Answer
B. alpha glucosidase
28
All the following drugs are uricosuric agents used in chronic gout, except :
Answer
D. Febuxostat
29
Time gap between primary and secondary case is
Answer
A. Serial interval
30
Strength of sewage is expressed in terms of
Answer
Question Cancelled
31
The highest percentage of poly unsaturated fatty acids (PUFA) is present in
Answer
C. Safflower oil
32
Mifepristone (RU-486) used for medical abortion is
Answer
B. Antiprogesterone
33
Goldenhar syndrome contains all the following features, except :
Answer
Question Cancelled
34
The most common cause of Acute Bacterial conjunctivitis among the following are
Answer
D. Staphylococcus aureus
35
All are causes of Miosis, except :
Answer
A. Belladona poisoning
36
Salu's Sign is seen in
Answer
B. Hypertensive retinopathy
37
Bony labyrinth responsible for hearing
Answer
Question Cancelled
38
Hyaline cartilage is seen in
Answer
C. Thyroid cartilage
39
Following are tuning fork test, except :
Answer
B. Guttzman’s test
40
Length of Eustachian tube in adults is
Answer
C. 36 mm
41
Iron deficiency anemia, koilonychia, dyspagia is seen in
Answer
D. Plummer Vinson syndrome
42
In infant, the most sensitive audiometric screening is
Answer
B. Brainstem Evoked Response Audiometry
43
Menieres disease is
Answer
C. Endolymphatic hydrops
44
Nasal Endoscopic Surgery is indicated in
Answer
C. Both
45
A patient with persistent ear discharge, 6th nerve palsy and retro-orbital pain is diagnosed to have
Answer
B. Gradenigo syndrome
46
Sound produced in Dysphonia plica ventricularis is by
Answer
A. False vocal cord
47
Drugs used for the prophylaxis of migraine are all, except :
Answer
D. Sumatriptan
48
Joint erosions are not a feature of
Answer
C. SLE
49
Weight gain is seen in all the following, except :
Answer
C. Phaeocromocytoma
50
Obesity is associated with all complications, except :
Answer
Question Cancelled
51
ln Hepatitis B infection which is not found in blood ?
Answer
A. HBc Ag
52
Tolvaptan is a drug used in
Answer
B. Hyponatremia
53
CAGE questionnaire is used to
Answer
C. Screen for alcohol abuse
54
Which of the following is a sign of lower motor neuron lesion ?
Answer
C. Hypotonia
55
All are true for Low molecular weight heparin compared to unfractionated heparin, except :
Answer
D. Lesser bioavailability
56
Chikungunya is spread by mosquito
Answer
A. Aedes aegypti
57
Sleep spindles and K-Complexes in EEG is characteristic of the following stage of sleep :
Answer
B. NREM Sleep Stage 2
58
A 37 year old male report to the Psychiatry OPD with complaints of inability to sleep at night for the past 3 months. Every night he checks whether the lights are off, the taps are closed, the door is locked and whether his child has slept. He cannot sleep if he doesn’t check this. This checking behaviour continues in the day time also. He knows that the behaviour is abnormal but cannot resist doing it. What is the most probable diagnosis ?
Answer
D. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder A 9 017/2021
59
A syndrome characterized by delusional conviction that other persons in the environment are not their real selves but are their own doubles is
Answer
C. Capgras Syndrome
60
All the following are seen in Depressive Disorder, EXCEPT :
Answer
A. Flight of Ideas
61
Marked sensitivity to Antipsychotics resulting in severe Extrapyramidal side effects are common in
Answer
B. Lewy Body Dementia
62
Erythema infectiosum is caused by
Answer
B. Parvovirus B19
63
Invermectin is used for treatment of
Answer
A. Scabies
64
The type of psoriasis more commonly seen in children and adolescents is
Answer
C. Acute guttate psoriasis
65
The most common sensitizer among topical antibiotics is
Answer
A. Neomycin sulfate
66
Radiosensitive testicular neoplasm is :
Answer
A. Seminoma
67
Among the following surgeries, abdominal approach is used in
Answer
D. Ripstein’s operation 017/2021 10 A
68
All the followings are predisposing factors for cancer tongue, except :
Answer
C. Sjogren syndrome
69
Kasai operation is for treatment of :
Answer
B. Extrahepatic biliary atresia
70
The main advantage of Lund and Browder charts over rule of nines is :
Answer
C. More accurate regarding age of patient
71
Rim fracture of distal radius called
Answer
B. Bartons fracture
72
Egawa test is used to detects injury of
Answer
D. Ulnar nerve
73
Axer osteotomy is done
Answer
C. Perthe’s disease
74
Ring sequestrum is seen in
Answer
A. Pin tract infection
75
Saddon’s classification is used to clarify
Answer
C. Nerve Injury
76
According to guidelines for disability assessment to quantify permanent physical impairment, the percentage of wrist disarticulation is
Answer
B. 60%
77
Wrist cock up flint is used in
Answer
C. Radial N Injury
78
Visual Analogue scale is used in the management of
Answer
A. Pain
79
Which of the following cancers can be prevented by vaccine ?
Answer
B. Carcinoma cervix
80
Which of the following viruses is commonly associated with nasopharyngeal carcinoma ?
Answer
A. Epstein Barr Virus
81
Unit of radiation absorbed dose is
Answer
D. Grey
82
Which of the following monoclonal antibodies is used in the treatment of metastatic colorectal cancer ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
83
The drug of choice for anaesthesia during Electro-Convulsive Therapy (ECT)
Answer
B. Methohexital
84
Which of these inhalational agents have a blood-gas partition co-efficient similar to Nitrous oxide ?
Answer
C. Desflurane
85
Compression – Ventilation ratio for single recurr in CPR –
Answer
Question Cancelled
86
Concentration gradient between intracellular and extracellular compartments for Na+ is
Answer
Question Cancelled
87
Severe acute malnutrition among children of 6 – 59 months of age is defined by any of the following criteria, EXCEPT :
Answer
B. Severe visible wasting
88
Treatment with Phenobarbitone may reduce the jaundice in which of the following conditions :
Answer
D. Crigler-Najjar syndrome Type 2
89
Blood picture in Enteric fever may show all of the following, EXCEPT :
Answer
B. Lymphocytosis
90
Which is not a feature of Dermatomyositis ?
Answer
B. Symmetrical distal muscle weakness
91
Least common variety of Trisomy 21
Answer
B. Partial Trisomy
92
Symptomatic central nervous system involvement occurs in what proportion of children with Mumps ?
Answer
A. 10 – 30%
93
The drug of choice for Trichuriasis in children is
Answer
A. Albendazole
94
Carditis occurs in what percentage of children with acute Rheumatic fever ?
Answer
B. 50-60%
95
Heliotrope rashes are pathognomonic of
Answer
C. Juvenile dermatomyositis
96
Which of the following immune marker is highly specific for Systemic lupus erythematosus ?
Answer
B. Anti double stranded DNA
97
Patient with infertility shows blocked tubes in Hysterosalpingogram. What is the next step ?
Answer
C. Laparoscopy
98
Which of the following of Human Papilloma virus subtype is causative agent for carcinoma cervix ?
Answer
B. 16, 18
99
Infertile patient with hirsuitism and irregular periods shows elevated LH level than FSH. Which is the most likely diagnosis ?
Answer
A. Polycystic ovarian syndrome
100
Which of the following is a risk factor for endometrial carcinoma ?
Answer
C. Diabetes Mellitus

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