| Post Name | AUDIOLOGIST & SPEECH PATHOLOGIST - MEDICAL EDUCATION |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 041/2019/OL |
| Category Code | 219/2017 |
| Date of Test | 2 September 2019 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
____________ is an autosomal dominant multiple tic disorder that begins in childhood.
Answer
B. Tourette syndrome
2
Following are muscles of pharynx except one that is __________.
Answer
B. Palatoglossus
3
____________ is a high, front and unrounded vowel.
Answer
B. /i/
4
_____________ is a disorder in which motor plans are intact but individual motor gestures are disturbed.
Answer
A. Ideomotor apraxia
5
The Broadman's area number "40" is ____________.
Answer
D. Supramarginal gyrus
6
The two cerebral hemispheres are connected with a mass of white matter called __________.
Answer
C. Corpus callosum
7
The _____________ act is referred to listener's interpretation of the message.
Answer
B. Perlocutionary act
8
___________ is the primary proponent of behavioristic theory of language acquisition.
Answer
B. Skinner
9
Chomsky's work is recognized as
Answer
D. syntactic theory
10
The nativistic theory emphasizes on ____________ component of language.
Answer
B. Syntax
11
Diagnosis made on the basis of results of inducing symptoms of a suspected disability is
Answer
A. Provocative Diagnosis
12
In _____________ technique there is breaking of a complex or difficult response into smaller more easily learned components.
Answer
C. Shaping
13
In ____________ approach a child's prior utterance is added by relevant grammatical and semantic details by the clinician.
Answer
C. extension
14
_____________ diagnostic term involves both descriptive and interactive functions of behavior.
Answer
A. Evaluation
15
Following are the factors that determine progress of therapy sequence except _________.
Answer
D. Gestures
16
___________ type of test gives clinician flexibility in terms of administration, scoring and testing environment.
Answer
C. Questionnaire
17
Incidental teaching is most effective for ____________ children.
Answer
C. Autism
18
Sensory integration is used in all except
Answer
A. SLI
19
In __________ type of dental occlusion the lower dental arch is in a posterior relation to the upper dental arch.
Answer
A. Distoclusion
20
The amount of air passing in and out of the lungs during normal resting respiration is __________.
Answer
A. Tidal volume
21
A possible etiology of faulty pitch could be ____________.
Answer
D. Hearing impairment
22
In dysphagia clients with weakened posterior pharyngeal wall ____________ strategy is effective.
Answer
A. Masako Maneuver
23
In ___________ condition an individual is unable to recognize previously known people.
Answer
B. Prosopagnosia
24
_____________ type of aphasia has good repetition skills and impaired naming and non-fluent conversational speech.
Answer
A. Transcortical motor
25
If CVA occurs in _____________ artery, the patient may experience aphasia, alexia, agraphia or visual field deficits.
Answer
B. Middle cerebral artery
26
Monopitch, monoloudness, short rushes of speech and reduced loudness are speech characteristics of ______________.
Answer
D. Hypokinetic Dysarthria
27
_______________ nerve functions as taste receptors to posterior 1/3rd of the tongue, elevation of palate and larynx and helps in swallowing.
Answer
A. Glossopharyngeal
28
____________ type of hyperkinesia is characterized by slow, irregular, coarse, writhing movements.
Answer
B. Athetosis
29
____________ is an example of a central vowel.
Answer
D. /Ι/
30
____________ is a lingualveolar, voiceless, fricative consonant.
Answer
A. /s/
31
In ____________ process a child says/nets/for/nest/
Answer
A. Metathesis
32
Larynx has ______________ number of paired cartilages.
Answer
B. Three
33
Lenticular nucleus or lentiform body is composed of ______________.
Answer
A. Globus pallidus and putamen
34
The basic structures of the face are distinguishable by ______________ week of fetal life of the embryo.
Answer
C. 5th
35
Reduplicated babbling is seen by _______________ of age.
Answer
A. 7 months
36
The /n/ in snow often is only partially voiced in the speech of most people because of ____________.
Answer
B. the /s/ is voiceless
37
Which of the following approaches typically is not used in phonological therapy
Answer
C. Traditional approach
38
Which of the following would most likely cause a patient to speak almost entirely in neologisms?
Answer
B. Severe Wernicke's aphasia
39
Which of the following is least used in apraxia treatment?
Answer
A. Motor strengthening exercises
40
Which does not describe a common disruption of phonation in dysarthria?
Answer
D. Inconsistently higher pitch
41
Advanced multiple sclerosis is most likely to result in which type of dysarthria
Answer
D. Variable dysarthria
42
Ataxic dysarthria is most likely to occur from which of the following
Answer
B. Cerebellar deterioration
43
The primary motor area in the cortex is located in ____________.
Answer
C. Precentralgyrus
44
In classic anomic aphasia, the lesion site is usually in ___________.
Answer
C. Left angular gyrus
45
What is the phonatory control center in the medulla oblongata?
Answer
D. Nucleus ambiguous
46
_____________ is used for diagnosing various infections and hemorrhages of the CNS that are not observable from CT scan.
Answer
C. Lumbar puncture
47
Which of the following is called as bradykinesia?
Answer
A. Slow movement
48
____________ is characterized by violent, forceful flinging movements of the arms and legs.
Answer
A. Ballism
49
The pharyngeal phase initiated as the bolus reaches ____________.
Answer
B. back of the tongue
50
Chronic diffuse swelling of superficial lamina propria of the vocal fold is known as __________.
Answer
A. Reinke's edema
51
The number of new cases in a population during a specified period of time is __________.
Answer
B. incidence
52
___________ is an example of non-preventable cause of hearing loss.
Answer
D. Aging
53
VRA procedure is an example of ___________ type of conditioning.
Answer
D. more operant than classical
54
A marked decrease in speech recognition ability with increasing intensity level is a feature of __________ pathology.
Answer
D. retrocochlear
55
The communication between scala vestibule and scala tymapani is established through __________.
Answer
A. Helicotrema
56
The mass and stiffness factors of the middle ear system are affected in __________.
Answer
Question Cancelled
57
Occlusion effect is found to be absent in cases with ____________ loss.
Answer
C. Conductive
58
Interaural attenuation for bone conduction is ___________.
Answer
C. 0
59
Auropalpebral reflex is another name for __________.
Answer
B. eye blink
60
The ability of binaural listening to 'tune in' to a wanted signal and at the same time to minimize the interfering effects of unwanted background noise is referred to as __________ effect.
Answer
A. squelch
61
Hearing loss sharply reduces the ____________ that the child has and thus slows down the process of learning to talk.
Answer
A. listening experiences
62
One of the important prerequisites for VRA includes _____________.
Answer
A. development of head turn response
63
An adult with a moderate degree of conductive hearing loss is likely to get __________% scores on WRS testing.
Answer
D. 95-100
64
The presence of components in an output signal which are multiples of the input signal frequency is _____________ distortion.
Answer
C. harmonic
65
During EAC measurement, ____________ is measured with the volume control at the full-on position.
Answer
D. SSPL 90
66
A coupler having a ____________ cc cavity is used during hearing aid analysis.
Answer
B. 2.0
67
The advantage most readily apparent with binaural hearing aids is ___________.
Answer
D. improved localization
68
A physical phenomenon which negatively affects the transmission of mid to high frequencies to the side of the far ear is ______________ effect.
Answer
D. head shadow
69
An average adult REUR has a primary peak around __________ Hz of around _________ dB.
Answer
C. 2700, 17
70
Hearing aids in which both, the processing of the audio signals and the control for the processing is done by digital aids are ____________ aids.
Answer
C. all-digital
71
BICROS is used in cases that have _____________.
Answer
B. one ear aidable and the other ear unaidable
72
_____________ systems involve the transmission of radio frequency waves.
Answer
B. FM
73
The ratio of the change in input SPL to the change in output SPL at a specified input level in an AGC system is called as ____________.
Answer
A. Compression ratio
74
Linear amplification is also described as ____________.
Answer
C. Constant gain
75
The acoupedic program insists on developing oral language through the use of ___________.
Answer
A. auditory sense
76
The dB scale belongs to the ____________ scale of measurement.
Answer
A. ratio
77
The embryonic period usually terminates around the ___________ week when the structure assumes a "human" appearance and is known as a fetus.
Answer
B. 8th
78
The human cochlea acquires normal adult function after __________ week of gestation.
Answer
C. 20
79
Which of the following develops first during the development of the inner ear?
Answer
B. cochlear duct
80
In high risk factors 'H' stands for ____________.
Answer
B. Hyperbilirubinemia
81
A single number that summarizes the overall level of noise exposure "averaged" over its duration is called as ___________.
Answer
D. Noise dose
82
Temporal auditory summation is a ___________ phenomenon.
Answer
C. Neural
83
The probability that a truly hearing impaired will fail a hearing screening test is called __________.
Answer
C. Sensitivity
84
What results when frequency of the driving force is the same as the frequency of the driven system?
Answer
D. resonance
85
The restricted band of frequencies around a pure-tone that contributes to the masking of the tone is called ____________.
Answer
A. critical ratio
86
Middle ear contribution to hearing through bone conduction is more at
Answer
A. Mid frequencies
87
The phenomenon of 'tonal perversion' is the basis of tone decay test given by
Answer
B. Green
88
_____________ type of Bekesy audiogram is seen in individuals with cochlear hearing loss.
Answer
C. Type II
89
Monaural Loudness Balance test can be administered in individuals having
Answer
D. hearing loss with normal threshold at least at one frequency
90
ABR is the method of choice for infant hearing screening because
Answer
D. all of the above
91
In ABR testing, a non-inverting electrode is called as ___________ electrode.
Answer
B. Positive
92
Electrocochleography (EcochG) is the measurement of electrical potentials that are derived from
Answer
C. cochlear function
93
DPOAEs are elicited by presenting two stimulus tones with different frequencies (f1 & f2). The frequency of DPOAE is equal to
Answer
C. 2f1 - f2
94
The microphone used in OAEs recording should have ____________.
Answer
C. low internal noise and wide bandwidth
95
Loudness is strongly dependent on ___________.
Answer
B. Spectrum
96
What does a biphasic acoustic reflex (onset and offset) indicate?
Answer
D. stapes fixation
97
What happens when the stapedius muscle contracts?
Answer
A. the impedance at the tympanic membrane increases
98
Bioler's notch is seen at _____________ frequency.
Answer
B. 4000 Hz
99
Consistency of results between repeated measures is known as __________.
Answer
C. reliability
100
Which of the following statements is not correct about otoacoustic emissions?
Answer
B. OAEs are electro physiologic
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