| Post Name | BIOCHEMIST (Medical Education) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 143/2025 |
| Category Code | 232/2024 |
| Date of Test | 6 November 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which type of microscope can be used for viewing detail of surface structures?
Answer
A. SEM
2
SYBR green bind to which grove of DNA?
Answer
D. Minor groove of dsDNA
3
All of these factors described are characteristics for tissue fixation except :
Answer
B. Activates bacterial decomposition
4
Name the method used for purification of antigen using specific antibody?
Answer
A. Affinity chromatography
5
Which ratio is measured by mass spectrometry?
Answer
C. m/z
6
Which of the following solvent is not used in NMR?
Answer
B. CHCl 3
7
Chemical shift has the units of :
Answer
A. Parts per million
8
Which of the following analytical methods would you choose to investigate whether a
compound is a monomer, dimer or trimer?
Answer
B. ESI-MS
9
Which parameters are used while designing a primer?
Answer
D. All of the above
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
A. ,
11
Which type of microscope uses laser as a source of light?
Answer
A. Confocal microscopy
12
Which of the following dyes used in histology is an acidic dye?
Answer
D. Eosin
13
Select the wavelength range corresponding to UV-visible region :
Answer
B. 200-800 nm
14
PCR technique designed to minimize amplification of non- specific PCR product using
2 primer sets?
Answer
C. Nested PCR
15
Which of the following is used as a carrier gas in gas chromatography?
Answer
C. Helium
16
In which of the following Chromatography Stationary phase and mobile phase are both
liquid?
Answer
Question Cancelled
17
The electrophoresis technique that uses isoelectric focusing is :
Answer
D. 2D-PAGE
143/2025 4 A
18
Denaturation of DNA at a PCR occurs at?
Answer
C. 94
19
In reverse phase chromatography, stationary phase is :
Answer
A. Non-polar
20
Heavy metals can be analyzed by :
Answer
B. Atomic absorption Spectrometry
21
Which of the following statement is /are correct about Hexokinase?
(i) It is a group specific enzyme
(ii) It show stereoisomeric specificity
(iii) Can phosphorylate
Answer
D. mannose
(iv) Can phosphorylate
22
Among the following which enzyme has the longest half life :
Answer
D. ALP
23
Enzyme assays are performed during :
Answer
B. Linear phase
24
Which among the following is an example for non plasma specific enzyme?
Answer
Question Cancelled
25
Which statement about LDH1 isoenzyme is/are correct?
(i) Preferentially catalyses pyruvate to lactate
(ii) Predominates in cardiac tissue and rbc
(iii) Permits energy producing reaction
Answer
B. Only (ii)
26
Among the following which organ is the principal source of 5’ Nucleotidase in blood?
Answer
A. Liver
27
Which of the following enzyme come is under class - 6, Ligase, in IUBMB enzyme
classification?
Answer
B. Synthatase
28
Which of the following enzyme has high activity in its phosphorylated stage?
Answer
A. Citrate lyase
29
Which of the following metalloenzyme has copper as cofactor?
Answer
A. Tyrosinase
30
Which of the following enzyme has Histidine at its active site?
Answer
B. Hexokinase
31
Which of the following statement about cooperative binding is false?
Answer
B. Saturation curve is bell shaped
32
ATP is allosteric activator for which of the following enzyme :
Answer
A. Aspartate transcarbomoylase
33
Anti inflammatory action of Aspirin is based on :
Answer
D. Suicide inhibition
143/2025 6 A
34
Which of the following graph is used for detecting inhibition constant in enzyme
kinetics?
Answer
D. Dixon plot
35
Purity of enzyme preparation is measured by :
Answer
C. Vmax/protein concentration
36
Which of the following isoform of ALP is referred as bone ALP?
Answer
C. Pre β ALP
37
All of the following are sub class in Oxidoreductases except :
Answer
D. Fumarase
38
Which of the following substrate has greater affinity towards Hexokinase?
Answer
B. Glucose
39
Which of the following statement is /are true about K series allosteric enzyme?
Answer
D. All of the above
40
Which of the statement/statements is true about Histone code?
(i) Is a classical example of epigenetics
(ii) Partial proteolysis regulating catalytic activity
(iii) Hereditary transmission of information by genomes
(iv) Modification by acetylation of DNA binding protein
Answer
C. Only (i), (iii) and (iv)
41
In a clinical laboratory’s Quality Assurance program, which of the following activities
primarily belongs to the post-analytical phase?
Answer
C. Review and validation of patient test reports before release
42
In internal quality control, the Levey-Jennings chart is primarily used to :
Answer
B. Detect trends and shifts in control measurements over time
43
According to principles of Good Laboratory Practice (GLP), which of the following best
ensures traceability of laboratory results in clinical chemistry?
Answer
B. Maintaining detailed documentation linking each test result to instrument,
reagent lot, and operator
44
Which of the following statements best describes the selection of Quality Control (QC)
materials for quantitative measurement procedures?
Answer
C. QC materials should represent clinical decision values across the analytical
measuring range
45
Which of the following best defines quality control in a laboratory according to WHO
guidelines?
Answer
B. The sum of all procedures undertaken to ensure the accuracy, reliability, and
purity of laboratory test results
46
Which of the following document deals with Medical laboratories – Requirements for
quality and competence?
Answer
A. ISO 15189:2022
47
The number of true positive results divided by total number of true positives and false
negative results (TP/TP +FN) is referred to :
Answer
A. Sensitivity of the diagnostic test
48
What is the role of Quality Improvement (QI) in the five-Q framework of quality?
Answer
D. identify the root cause of a problem and find a remedy for that problem
49
In the below Levey - Jennings control Chart, what does the 2nd number graph indicates :
Answer
B. Accuracy performance
50
Which of the following is a controllable pre - analytical variable for laboratory testing?
Answer
A. Diet
51
An evacuated blood collection tube with a light blue stopper contains which of the
following additives :
Answer
C. Sodium citrate
52
When a patient’s clinical condition is generally stable and differences between repeated
test results are small, the difference between successive results of patient may be used
as a form of quality assurance. This is known as :
Answer
B. Delta check
53
The process by which simulated patient specimens made from a common pool are
analyzed by laboratories; the results of this procedure are evaluated to determine the
“quality” of the laboratories’ performance is referred to as :
Answer
D. Proficiency testing
54
Which of the following is a systematic error?
Answer
A. Unstable calibrating solutions
55
Which of the following Control rule tend to respond to random errors?
Answer
A. 13s
56
Which of the following statement is /are incorrect about specimen collection?
(i) Lithium heparin tubes are widely used for chemistry tests and require clotting
before use.
(ii) An EDTA anticoagulated specimen can be used for calcium determination.
(iii) A sodium fluoride tube helps to prevent glycolysis and is used for glucose
measurement.
Answer
A. Only (i) and (ii)
57
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Cerebrospinal fluid?
(i) CSF usually has total protein concentrations about 100-fold lower than plasma.
(ii) Increased intrathecal synthesis of immunoglobulin, particularly IgM, occurs in
demyelinating diseases of the central nervous system.
(iii) Conditions such as viral meningitis, encephalitis, haemorrhage may all
compromise the blood-brain barrier, resulting in increased CSF protein.
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
58
Which of the following statement is /are correct about Amniotic fluid?
(i) Intrauterine growth restriction and anomalies of the fetal urinary tract are
associated with oligohydramnios.
(ii) Polyhydramnios occurs in anencephaly, spina bifida and maternal diabetes
mellitus.
(iii) Fetal cells shed in amniotic fluid are a source of DNA for karyotype analysis for
suspected aneuploidy.
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii) and (iii)
59
Which of the following statement is /are incorrect about urine collection?
(i) Proper collection technique on an infant utilizes “bagging” with a small plastic
collection bag.
(ii) Sample should be kept at room temperature for timed collections.
(iii) A 24-hour collection includes the first morning urine sample both at the start and
the finish of collection.
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
60
Which type of specimen label has resulted in a reduction in preanalytical specimen
identification errors and is used extensively in automated specimen identification?
Answer
A. Label containing barcodes that are unique identifiers
61
Why should internal quality control be performed?
Answer
C. To have a high probability that correct patient results are released
62
One serious issue with the use of accelerating/decelerating pneumatic tube systems to
deliver specimens to the laboratory is the occurrence of :
Answer
C. Haemolysis
63
Which of the following statement is /are correct about Microtiter plate systems?
(i) Microtiter plate systems are commonly used in estimation of lipid profile
(ii) Microtiter plates are usually made of polystyrene and have 48 or 96 wells
(iii) Measurement of absorbance and data processing are also automated in many
instruments
Answer
B. Only (ii) and (iii)
64
The transport of a quantity of analyte or reagent from one specimen reaction to
subsequent one is referred to as :
Answer
B. Carryover
65
Which type of software would likely apply to the control of specimen routing / motion on
a total laboratory automation system?
Answer
A. Laboratory Automation System (LAS)
66
The marker enzyme for organophosphorous poisoning is :
Answer
D. Pseudocholineesterase
67
The following enzymes exist as multienzyme complexes EXCEPT :
Answer
B. ALA synthase
68
In Enzyme Linked Immuno sorbent Assay, most commonly used enzyme is :
Answer
D. Horse radish peroxidase
69
Non-Protein part of enzyme is known as :
Answer
A. Coenzyme
70
Zinc is used as co factor in :
Answer
A. Carbonic anhydrase
71
Which of the following is the diagnostic feature of hepatocellular cancer?
Answer
C. Elevated alpha fetoprotein level
72
All of the following enzymatic markers reflect cholestasis EXCEPT :
Answer
D. Lactate Dehydrogenase
73
Which of the following is a marker of autoimmune process of type 1 Diabetes mellitus?
Answer
A. Glutamic acid decarboxylase
74
All of the following are GLP-1 receptor agonists EXCEPT :
Answer
C. Pramlintide
75
All of the following mutations are seen in Diabetes mellitus EXCEPT :
Answer
D. p53 mutations
76
The LH Receptor mutation causes precocious puberty in :
Answer
A. Male
77
MEN 1 is characterised by mutations in:
Answer
B. 11q13
78
The MEN 2 syndrome is caused by :
Answer
A. Activating mutation of RET protooncogene
79
The G alpha activating mutation in somatotrophs causes :
Answer
B. Tall stature
80
The Testosterone levels in XY androgen resistance males are :
Answer
A. Very high
81
Which of the following statements regarding the regulation, metabolic fate, and
diagnostic detection of hypothalamic-pituitary-thyroid axis hormones is correct?
Answer
C. TSH glycosylation pattern alters its bioactivity and serum half-life; ultra-
sensitive TSH immunoassays may show falsely normal results in central
hypothyroidism, as TRH-stimulated TSH secretion is blunted and most TSH
released is biologically inactive
82
Which of the following statements regarding glucocorticoid
Answer
B. GR β , a splice variant of the glucocorticoid receptor (GR), lacks the
ligand-binding domain required for glucocorticoid activation, acts as a
dominant-negative modulator of GR α , is upregulated in hypercortisolism,
and may contribute to glucocorticoid resistance in certain tissues
83
Which of the following statements best describes the mechanism and clinical relevance of
the prozone phenomenon in immunoassays, as discussed in contemporary sources and
echoed in recent endocrinology literature?
Answer
B. Prozone phenomenon results from overwhelming antibody titers in a sample,
leading to failure of antigen-antibody lattice formation and thus a falsely
negative test result; this effect is especially seen in nontreponemal syphilis
serology and can be corrected by serial dilution of serum
84
Which of the following correctly describes a major pathway of estrogen biosynthesis in
humans?
Answer
B. Aromatase catalyzes the irreversible conversion of androstenedione and
testosterone into estrone and estradiol respectively, primarily in ovarian
granulosa cells and adipose tissue, constituting the key step in estrogen
biosynthesis
85
Which of the following best describes a key feature of IGF-1 physiology and its
regulation?
Answer
B. IGF-1 mediates many of the anabolic and growth-promoting effects of GH by
binding to a specific receptor that shares structural similarity with the
insulin receptor and activating intracellular signaling cascades
86
Which of the following genes is most commonly mutated in hereditary
pheochromocytoma and represents a key component of the pseudohypoxia pathway?
Answer
B. SDHB (succinate dehydrogenase subunit
87
Which of the following best describes a fundamental feature of the insulin receptor and
its signaling mechanism?
Answer
B. Insulin receptor is a heterotetrameric tyrosine kinase receptor composed of
two extracellular α -subunits that bind insulin and two transmembrane
β -subunits with intrinsic tyrosine kinase activity; activation initiates
phosphorylation cascades mediating glucose uptake
88
Which of the following best explains the clinical significance of measuring serum TSH
and free T4 in thyroid function testing?
Answer
A. Elevated serum TSH with decreased free T4 levels definitively indicates
primary hypothyroidism due to thyroid gland failure, with TSH being the
most sensitive single marker for thyroid dysfunction
89
Which of the following statements correctly describes a key regulatory mechanism in
lipid metabolism?
Answer
A. Lipoprotein lipase (LPL) hydrolyzes triglycerides in circulating chylomicrons
and very-low-density lipoproteins (VLDL) primarily in skeletal muscle and
adipose tissue, and its activity is upregulated by insulin during the fed state
90
Which of the following best describes a key regulatory action of insulin on glucose
metabolism?
Answer
B. Insulin promotes glucose uptake in skeletal muscle and adipose tissue
primarily by translocating GLUT4 transporters to the plasma membrane,
enhancing peripheral glucose disposal
91
Fraction of administered drug that reaches the systemic circulation in the unchanged
form is:
Answer
B. Bioavailability
92
Number of half lives required to attain steady state plasma concentration is:
Answer
D. 4-5
93
Drug antagonist has:
Answer
D. Affinity same as Agonist and devoid of Intrinsic activity
143/2025 17 A
94
A highly ionized drug:
Answer
A. Is excreted mainly by the kidney
95
Preferred route of administration for highly irritant drugs:
Answer
C. Intravenous
96
In metabolism of xenobiotics, all of the following reactions occur in phase one EXCEPT?
Answer
C. Conjugation
97
Which of the following cytochrome P450 isoenzymes is involved in the metabolism of
largest number of drugs in human beings and has been implicated in some dangerous
drug interactions:
Answer
A. CYP 3A4
98
Which among the following is chlorinated hydrocarbon insecticide:
Answer
B. Lindane
99
Which of the following is a synthetic hallucinogen derived from a fungus:
Answer
B. Lysergic acid diethylamide
100
Tachyphylaxis differs from tolerance in that Tachyphylaxis:
Answer
A. Develops rapidly
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