| Post Name | Blood Bank Technician Grade.I - Health Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 105/2024/OL |
| Category Code | 730/2023 |
| Date of Test | 4 September 2024 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Color of the label used for Autologous transfusion is
Answer
C. Green
2
Standard blood administration set has filter size of
Answer
B. 170-260 microns
3
Transfusion of Autologous blood can cause all the following reactions, except
Answer
C. Red cell alloimmunization
4
Minimum weight required for Apheresis blood donor is
Answer
B. 50 kg
5
Used surgical mask should be discarded in
Answer
A. Yellow colored bag
6
Advantages of Autologous blood transfusion are all except
Answer
C. It can be used as an allogeneic transfusion if not transfused as autologous transfusion
7
Apheresis can be performed using the following equipment
Answer
B. Cell separator
8
Irradiation of blood components helps in preventing
Answer
A. Graft-vs-Host disease
9
Approved methods of screening HIV in donated blood units in a Blood Centre are all, except
Answer
C. Western Blot
10
License of Blood Bank is given by
Answer
C. State Drug Controller
11
Which one of these is not a blood component?
Answer
D. Dendritic cells
12
Which anticoagulant is used in blood bags for blood collection and storage?
Answer
A. Sodium citrate
13
Cryoprecipitate contains all except
Answer
C. Factor X
14
A healthy male donor can donate blood every
Answer
B. 3 months
15
Fluid compatible with blood are all, except
Answer
B. Dextrose-saline
16
The best method for leucoreduction is
Answer
D. Filtration
17
National Voluntary Blood Donation day is celebrated on
Answer
C. 1st October
18
Normal adult hemoglobin is
Answer
A. Hemoglobin A
19
Blood collected in CPDA anticoagulant-preservative solution can be stored for a period of
Answer
C. 35 days
20
Red blood cells have a life span of
Answer
C. 120 days
21
Blood components are prepared by the principle of
Answer
A. Centrifugation
22
Washing of Red cells is done by
Answer
C. Normal saline
23
Liquid portion of blood after a clot is formed is called
Answer
B. Serum
24
ABO blood group was discovered by
Answer
B. Landsteiner
25
Immunodominant sugar of blood group O is:
Answer
B. L-fucose
26
In a normal adult with AB blood group, of the following, which is the most common antigen on red cells?
Answer
B. B antigen
27
What will be the phenotype of an individual with AO genotype, Hh and sese genes?
Answer
B. A blood group, non-secretor
28
Immunodominant sugar of blood group A2 is :
Answer
C. N-acetyl-D-galactosamine
29
Which of the following is predominantly IgG in nature?
Answer
C. Anti A,B
30
Reagent made from the seeds of Dolichos biflorus reacts with:
Answer
A. A1B red cells
31
Bombay phenotype is inherited as an
Answer
A. Autosomal recessive
32
Most common type of blood grouping discrepancy is
Answer
D. Type I
33
R1R2 is Weiner nomenclature is represented in the Fischer Race nomenclature as
Answer
C. DCe/DcE
34
How are weaker-than-expected reactions with anti-D typing reagents interpreted in patients for the purpose of transfusion, in the absence of genetic testing?
Answer
D. Rh D negative
35
In a non-secretor individual with Lewis gene, the following substance may be present in secretions
Answer
A. only
36
Which of the following antigens are often diminished on the mother's RBCs during pregnancy?
Answer
D. Lewis
37
Which of the following are NOT antithetical antigens?
Answer
B. I and i
38
Which of the following antibodies does not react with papain treated red cells?
Answer
A. Duffy
39
In the Hierarchy pyramid of documentation system, the level I is
Answer
A. Quality Manual
40
In India, the blood centres shall maintain all the records for a minimum period of
Answer
D. Five years
41
Centralized blood centre information system developed by Ministry of Health and Family Welfare, Government of India, is
Answer
C. e-Raktkosh
42
As part of Quality requirements, pH should be tested for all the following, EXCEPT
Answer
A. Copper Sulphate
43
All the following quality criteria of antisera reagents should be checked daily EXCEPT
Answer
C. Reactivity
44
Which among the following reagents have "Purity" as a parameter for quality requirements?
Answer
B. Bovine Serum Albumin
45
For a buffy coat derived leucocyte depleted pooled (Pooling of 6 units) platelet concentrate, what should be the platelet count to meet the quality requirements?
Answer
A. > 2 ×
46
For "Avidity" testing of reagents as a quality requirement criterion, all the following are true EXCEPT
Answer
C. Measures time and strength of agglutination microscopically
47
A Blood centre has collected 4000 units of whole blood in a month. For meeting the quality requirements of blood components, how many of the tested units should fulfil the quality requirements?
Answer
D. 30 units
48
All the following types of red cell are required for checking the titre and avidity of Anti-AB antisera EXCEPT
Answer
D. AB
49
Which of the following is the anticoagulant of choice in coagulation studies?
Answer
A. Trisodium citrate
50
Normal red cell count at birth is :
Answer
C. 6 ± 1 × /L
51
Which of the following is the original reagent used in cyanmethaemoglobin method for estimation of Haemoglobin concentration in blood?
Answer
B. Drabkin reagent
52
Which of the following is a diluting fluid used for absolute eosinophil count?
Answer
B. Hingleman's solution
53
In Indirect Coomb's test which part of blood sample is tested:
Answer
C. Serum
54
What is the normal size of Monocytes?
Answer
C. 15-18 µm
55
Which of the following is/are true about Plasmodium Vivax?
Answer
B. Amoeboid forms with central vacuoles and light blue cytoplasm
56
Which of the following causes false negative Antiglobulin test?
Answer
D. All of the above
57
A positive Direct Antiglobulin test is seen in :
Answer
A. Haemolytic disease of newborn
58
Which of the following samples can be used for performing Flow Cytometry?
Answer
D. All of the above
59
What of the following is NOT a method of ABO& D blood grouping?
Answer
D. Serum electrophoresis
60
Poly specific Anti human globulin sera contains:
Answer
A. Human IgG &
61
Which of the following cause discrepancies in ABO/D grouping?
Answer
D. All of the above
62
Which of the following is not an application of Indirect Coomb's test?
Answer
C. Identification of Heinz bodies
63
Advantages of Pre storage leucoreduction: it reduces the chance of all except
Answer
D. Transfusion Associated Circulatory overload
64
All the following are true regarding the metabolic complications of massive transfusion except
Answer
D. Hypercalcemia
65
Irradiation of blood is done to prevent
Answer
A. Transfusion Associated Graft Versus Host Diseases
66
If O Negative FFP is not available in Blood Bank your next choice FFP is of group
Answer
A. O positive
67
Transfusion Associated Bacterial Sepsis is more common with the transfusion of the following products
Answer
C. Random Donor Platelets
68
The objectives of the recipient Hemovigilance program is all except
Answer
C. To take punitive action
69
When Major Cross matching is done by immediate spin method using patient serum and donor cells incompatibility can occur when there is
Answer
D. All the above
70
Elution techniques are useful for
Answer
A. Investigation of a positive DCT result
71
After issuing blood products a donor unit segment has to be retained in Blood Centre; It should be kept for a minimum period of
Answer
C. One week
72
Reagent Red Cells used in antibody screening
Answer
B. Contains all commonly encountered clinically significant antigens
73
Which of the following are IgG type of antibodies?
Answer
D. All the above
74
All the following are true regarding Kell blood group system except
Answer
D. Kell antigens are not expressed on fetal red cells
75
Transfusion Related Acute Lung Injury is common with the transfusion of
Answer
B. Transfusion of multiparous female donor plasma
76
Which of the following is correct regarding transfusion of whole blood in a neonate? (i) Mother's sample is required for cross matching. (ii) If Mother's sample is not available 'O' group unit with Rh D compatible with the infant can be selected. (iii) If Mother's sample is not available baby group can be selected.
Answer
B. (i) and (ii) correct
77
The most common opportunistic infection that occurs in HIV infected people is
Answer
B. Tuberculosis
78
Which is the best diagnostic tool to detect HIV during window period?
Answer
D. RT-PCR
79
The gold standard test for the diagnosis of Hepatitis C virus infection is
Answer
C. HCV RNA detection
80
All the following are specific tests for Syphilis except
Answer
B. Rapid Plasma Reagin test
81
Which type of cells are most often infected by HIV?
Answer
C. CD4 + T lymphocytes
82
Which of the following hepatitis virus is DNA virus?
Answer
B. Hepatitis B virus
83
Which of the following markers is first to appear in blood after infection with Hepatitis B virus?
Answer
A. HBsAg
84
The infective form of malarial parasite is
Answer
B. Sporozoite
85
Gametocytes of which plasmodium species are sickle shaped?
Answer
B. Plasmodium falciparum
86
Which of the following Hepatitis viruses may cause Hepatic carcinoma?
Answer
B. Hepatitis C virus
87
Which of the following markers when positive indicate high infectivity of Hepatitis B virus?
Answer
C. HBeAg
88
Which of the following Hepatitis viruses can be transmittted by sexual route?
Answer
B. Hepatitis C virus
89
Which stage of Syphilis is characterized by absence of clinical manifestations, positive serological tests and normal CSF findings?
Answer
C. Latent Syphilis
90
Pernicious malaria is seen in infection with
Answer
D. Plasmodium falciparum
91
Causes of a positive Direct Antiglobulin Test (DAT/DCT) result are
Answer
D. All of the above
92
In Cold Agglutinin Syndrome (CAS) Direct Antiglobulin Test (DCT) will be positive due to
Answer
C. C3 only
93
Donath - Landsteiner test is the diagnostic test for
Answer
A. Paroxysmal Cold Hemoglobinuria
94
Hemolytic Anemia is often demonstrated in a blood smear by
Answer
C. Both (1) and (2)
95
Transfusion of a blood component must be completed within
Answer
D. 4 hours of the start of transfusion
96
Which of the following is the correct statement regarding platelet transfusion?
Answer
D. All of the above statement are correct
97
Indications for cryoprecipitate transfusions are all except
Answer
C. Severe Iron deficiency anemia
98
Most common cause of hemolytic disease of fetus and newborn is
Answer
A. ABO incompatibility between fetus and mother
99
Blood units selected for intrauterine transfusion should be all except
Answer
C. More than 7 days old
100
Relative concentration of Anti-D in maternal serum which can cause HDFN is determined by
Answer
B. Antibody titration
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