| Post Name | BLOOD BANK TECHNICIAN GRADE II-MEDICAL EDUCATION DEPARTMENT |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 031/2020 |
| Category Code | 127/2018 |
| Date of Test | 19 September 2020 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The process of formation of glucose from lactate is called as
Answer
B. Gluconeogenesis
2
Presence of protein in a sample of urine is detected by
Answer
D. Heat coagulation test
3
Optimal levels of LDL Cholesterol is
Answer
A. <100mg/dl
4
Glycosidic linkage present in sucrose is
Answer
Question Cancelled
5
Clearance of a substance is given by the formulae:
Answer
B. C = UV/P
6
According to Beerās law, concentration of analyte in a solution is directly proportional to
Answer
B. Absorbance
7
To prepare 10mI of 6N HCI, the volume of concentrated HCl required is (Normality
of Conc.HCl is 12)
Answer
A. 5ml
8
The ideal blood collection tube for Glucose estimation is
Answer
D. Sodium ļ¬uoride
9
The fraction of protein that moves faster when subjected to protein electrophoresis is
Answer
C. Albumin
10
Serum Total Protein of a 55 yr. old male is 6g/dl, āSerum Albumin is 3g/dl. A/G ratio is
Answer
A. 1 : 1
11
When subjected to urine aminogram, the solvent front was 6 cm and solute front was
5 cm, the Rf Value is
Answer
A. 0.83
12
Glass Cuvettes must not be cleaned with
Answer
Question Cancelled
13
Which of these is not a method for estimating blood glucose ?
Answer
B. Glucokinase
14
All of these are Ketone bodies except
Answer
C. Acetate
15
The co-factor required for transamination reactions is
Answer
D. PLP
16
Bile salts and Bile pigments in urine are seen in
Answer
Question Cancelled
17
When a molecule absorbs light at one wavelength and reemits light at a longer
wavelength it is called
Answer
C. Fluorescence
18
Following were the lipid proļ¬le results of a 45 yr. old male
Serum Triglyceride-150mg/dl
Serum Total Cholesterol-200mg/dl
Serum HDL Cholesterol-40mg/dl
The Serum LDL Cholesterol of this man is
Answer
B. 130mg/dl
19
If the Blood urea of a patient is 85.6, then Blood urea Nitrogen would be
Answer
C. 40
20
The correct order of draw of blood sample is
Answer
A. Red tube, Green tube, Lavender tube, Grey tube
21
In a Clinical biochemistry laboratory, the blood sample of a patient showed very high
AST, requiring dilution, which of these denotes 1: 10 dilution ?
Answer
A. 450ļæ½l Diluent + 50ļæ½l Sample
22
The speciļ¬c gravity of an Urine sample was found to be 1.005 at 30Ā°C. After correcting
for temperature the speciļ¬c gravity of the sample would be
Answer
B. 1.010
23
Transporting of blood sample in icepack is required for the estimation of
Answer
B. Ammonia
24
VLDL should not be calculated if serum triglyceride is greater than
Answer
C. 400mg/dl
25
All of these are properties of an ideal quality control sample except
Answer
D. Lyophilized controls are convenient than liquid controls
26
Which of the following is a Gram positive bacteria ?
Answer
B. Corynebacterium diphtheriae
27
Disinfection removes _____________ from the surface or medium.
Answer
D. Pathogenic organisms
28
All the following discs are used to test Antibiotic sensitivity for Pseudomonas
except
Answer
D. Vancomycin
29
What is the rate of HIV transmission by a contaminated needle prick ?
Answer
B. 0.3%
30
Which of the following is an agglutination test ?
Answer
D. Widal test
31
Which of the following is an anaerobic culture method ?
Answer
A. Alkaline pyrogallol method
32
The protective HBV antibody level is
Answer
C. 10 mlU/ml
33
MIC of an antibiotic can be tested by
Answer
A. E test method
34
Bile aesculin test is to
Answer
C. Diagnose enterococci
35
Which of the following is not a transport medium ?
Answer
C. Loefļ¬erās serum slope medium
36
All the following features are shown by enterobacteriaceae except
Answer
D. Oxidase test positive
37
The best way to collect sputum sample for Mycobacterium culture and microscopy
Answer
D. First morning samples of 3 days
38
Which is true for STS (Standard Tests for Syphilis) ?
Answer
B. Chance for False positive test results
39
The primary diagnosis of HIV is done by
Answer
A. Three rapid tests
40
Which of the following is characteristic of hookworm egg ?
Answer
A. Non bile stained, segmented ovum
41
To prepare 1% hypochlorite, how much of bleaching powder is to be added to 1 litre
of water ?
Answer
D. 30 gm
42
As per Biomedical waste management guidelines, the blood bag after use is to be
discarded in bucket with __________ colour.
Answer
D. Yellow
43
Standard precautions include all except
Answer
D. Cohorting
44
Tyndallisation is a method of sterilization using
Answer
D. Steam
45
Which of the following is an enriched media for Salmonella species ?
Answer
Question Cancelled
46
Select the organism which is oxidase test negative.
Answer
A. Clostridium tetani
47
Which of the following antibiotic disc is used to identify MRSA ?
Answer
A. Cefoxitin
48
Pick up the lactose fermenting bacteria from the following.
Answer
D. Staphylococcus aureus
49
The peripheral smear of a clinically suspected case of malaria shows intra erythrocytic,
multiple ring forms and some of the rings show multiple nuclei also. Which is the
most probable species ?
Answer
B. Plasmodium falciparum
50
Cryptococcus neoformans is
Answer
B. Fungus causing meningitis
51
Bombay blood group is seen in blood group type
Answer
D. O
52
Rh HDN occurs in
Answer
D. Second B positive child in B negative mother
53
Direct Coombs test positive means Coombs serum has bound to
Answer
B. Antibody coated on RBC
54
Copper sulphate in blood bank is used to screen for
Answer
B. Hemoglobin level
55
Anticoagulant used in blood bank is
Answer
D. AII of the above
56
Febrile reaction occurs in transfusion reaction due to
Answer
D. WBC antigen sensitization
57
Indications for FFP
Answer
A. Coagulation factor deļ¬ciency
58
On high speed centrifuging of blood we obtain
Answer
C. RBC concentrate
59
Positive Coombs test means we get
Answer
A. Agglutination
60
AII are transfusion transmitted hepatitis except
Answer
A. A
61
Formalin ļ¬xative used in histopathology is
Answer
A. 10%
62
Technique used in decalciļ¬cation are all except
Answer
D. Sulphuric acid
63
Tissue section is cut in histopathology using
Answer
B. Microtome
64
Formalin pigment is
Answer
A. Acid formaldehyde hematin
65
Steps in automated tissue processor are all except
Answer
C. Embedding
66
Frozen section is done in tissue received in
Answer
D. Saline
67
Fixative used in cytology is
Answer
D. 95% ethyl alcohol
68
Commonly used stain in cytology is
Answer
B. PAP
69
Van Gieson stain is used to demonstrate
Answer
B. Connective tissue
70
PAS stain is used to demonstrate
Answer
A. Carbohydrate
71
Cells without nucleus in blood are
Answer
A. Erythrocyte
72
Hemoglobin is composed of
Answer
B. One iron and 4 globin
73
At which stage of RBC development hemoglobin ļ¬rst appears in the cell ?
Answer
C. lntermediate normoblast
74
The cell in which Barr body counted is
Answer
D. Squamous epithelial
75
Myeloid stem cell gives rise to all except
Answer
C. Lymphocyte
76
Cell producing platelets are
Answer
C. Megakaryocyte
77
Reagent used for sickling test is
Answer
B. Sodium metabisulphite
78
Pathology of thalassemia is
Answer
B. Globin production decreased
79
Pernicious anaemia is a speciļ¬c type of
Answer
C. Macrocytic anaemia
80
Hereditary spherocytosis is due to
Answer
C. Membrane defect
81
Cell increased in acute leukemia is
Answer
A. Myeloblast
82
Cell increased in multiple myeloma is
Answer
D. Plasma cell
83
Prothrombin time measures the abnormality in
Answer
A. Extrinsic pathway
84
Partial thromboplastin time measures the status of
Answer
B. Intrinsic pathway
85
The anticoagulant used for ESR estimation is sodium
Answer
D. Citrate
86
The anticoagulant used for osmotic fragility is
Answer
A. Heparin
87
Hematocrit means
Answer
D. PCV
88
Leishman stain is used to stain
Answer
A. Blood smear
89
Westergrens pipette is used to estimate
Answer
A. ESR
90
LE cell preparation is done to demonstrate
Answer
A. Antinuclear antibody
91
Test for blood in urine is
Answer
B. Benzidine test
92
Casts in urine are
Answer
A. Protein coagulated in tubules
93
Speciļ¬c test for glucose in urine is
Answer
A. Urine strip test
94
Glycosuria means urine contains
Answer
A. Glucose
95
Compared to exudates the transudate would have
Answer
A. Lower speciļ¬c gravity
96
CSF ļ¬uid processing can be delayed upto
Answer
A. Half hour
97
Methods to concentrate the ļ¬uid specimen while processing are all except
Answer
D. Distillation
98
Quality of Sputum smear report depends on
Answer
D. AII of the above
99
Stool occult blood test is indicated in all except
Answer
D. Hemorrhoids
100
Time required for ļ¬xation of cytology smears is
Answer
B. 15 mins
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.