| Post Name | Blood Bank Technician - Health Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 052/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 272/2025, 315/2025, 474/2025 |
| Date of Test | 1 April 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
The ratio of anticoagulant CPDA solution to collected blood in blood bag is
Answer
A. 1 : 7
2
Anticoagulant preservatives available for whole blood collection and storage
Answer
D. All of the above
3
In additive solution SAGM RBC can be stored up to
Answer
C. 42 days
4
As per Donor Selection Criteria (by NACO 2017) following blood donors are permanently deferred, except
Answer
B. History of Tuberculosis
5
Expiry period of Apheretic platelet
Answer
C. 5 days
6
Physical changes in stored RBC include
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
7
Accepted temperature range for blood transportation is
Answer
C. 2 - 10 C
8
A platelet additive solution is
Answer
A. Intersol
9
Methods of Leucoreduction are
Answer
C. Both 1 and 2
10
Beneļ¬t of prestorage leucoļ¬ltration
Answer
C. Lower the incidence of Febrile Non Haemolytic Transfusion Reaction (FNHTR)
11
Cryoprecipitate is prepared from
Answer
B. Fresh Frozen Plasma
12
Irradiated blood products are indicated to prevent
Answer
D. Transfusion Associated Graft Versus Host Disease (TA-GVHD)
13
Indication for granulocyte transfusion
Answer
D. Both 1 and 2
14
Dosage of platelet transfusion in children of 10 kg body weight
Answer
A. One unit / 10 kg body weight
15
Haemonetics MCS+ is an example of _______ type of Apheresis machine.
Answer
A. Intermittent ļ¬ow centrifugation
16
Minimum platelet count required for a platelet pheresis donor
Answer
C. 1,50,000 / l
17
A plasmapheresis donor can donate plasma
Answer
B. Twice in 7 days
18
Therapeutic plasma exchange is done for
Answer
D. All of the above
19
Age limit for autologous donation.
Answer
C. No age limit
20
To provide blood for patients who refuses blood from other donors, preferred type of donation is
Answer
C. Autologous donation
21
Recovery of blood from surgical drains followed by reinfusion with or without processing is
Answer
A. Post operative blood salvage
22
Disadvantages of autologous transfusion are the following except
Answer
D. Risk of disease transmission is there
23
'Leap frog technique' is used in
Answer
B. Pre operative autologous donation
24
Advantages of practicing acute isovolemic / normovolemic hemodilution method in open heart surgery
Answer
D. All of the above
25
Carbohydrate antigens on red blood cells are
Answer
A. ABO blood group antigens
26
Rouleaux formation that resembles agglutination can be identiļ¬ed by
Answer
D. Using saline
27
The antibodies that cause haemolytic disease of new born are
Answer
D. All of the above
28
Anti A1 lectin used in blood centers is
Answer
B. Dolichos biļ¬orus
29
The antibody found in the bombay blood group individual is
Answer
A. Anti H
30
Technical errors during blood grouping can be all except
Answer
D. Presence of alloantibodies
31
Primarily Rh antibodies are of which immunoglobulin class ?
Answer
C. IgG
32
Reaction that you expect to see in reverse grouping (serum grouping ) in a suspected bombay phenotype
Answer
A. Reaction with O cell, A cell and B cell
33
ABO blood group was discovered by
Answer
A. Karl Landsteiner
34
The speciļ¬city of auto antibody present in patients with paroxysmal cold hemoglobinuria
Answer
A. Anti P
35
Which blood group antigen is a receptor for helicobacter pylori ?
Answer
C. Leb
36
The earliest antigen to appear on the red cells in foetal life
Answer
C. Kell antigen
37
Locus of Rh gene is on
Answer
D. Chromosome 1
38
Rh system gene is
Answer
A. RHD and RHCE
39
Comparison of measurements performed with an instrument to those made with a more accurate instrument or standard for the purpose of detecting, reporting and eliminating errors in measurement is
Answer
B. Calibration
40
An unexpected occurrence that did not adversely aļ¬ect the outcome but could have resulted in a serious adverse event
Answer
B. Near Miss event
41
All the antisera and other reagents used for serological work in the blood bank should be checked
Answer
B. Daily
42
Accrediting organisations are all except
Answer
C. Code of Federal Regulations (CFR)
43
Operational techniques and activities used to monitor and eliminate causes of unsatisfactory performance at any stage of a process; involves sampling and testing
Answer
C. Quality Control
44
Types of quality control are
Answer
C. All of the above
45
It is preferrable to do RhD typing with anti D from ________ commercial sources.
Answer
B. 2
46
Graphical method for displaying control results and evaluating whether a procedure is in control or out of control
Answer
A. Levey Jennings chart
47
The percentage of blood components to be checked for quality assurance in a big blood center is
Answer
D. 1%
48
The main functions of hospital transfusion committee are all except
Answer
D. To prepare an international product reference database
49
The buļ¬er used for staining of peripheral smears with leishman stain is
Answer
B. Phosphate buļ¬er
50
Bulk dilution is done using
Answer
C. Sahli s pipette
51
The most important stage in estimation of erythrocyte sedimentation rate is
Answer
A. Aggregation
52
The anticoagulant which gives a bluish background when used for peripheral smear
Answer
D. Heparin
53
The test which can be used as an internal quality control for hemoglobin estimation is
Answer
A. Hematocrit
54
Quantitative buļ¬y coat helps to detect
Answer
C. Malarial parasite
55
Leucocyte common antigen is
Answer
D. CD 45
56
The colouring agent used in anti B antisera for blood grouping
Answer
D. Acriļ¬avine
57
Which among the following parameters is measured directly or derived through histogram ?
Answer
A. Mean cell volume
58
Direct coomb s test helps to detect
Answer
B. Antibodies attached to RBCs
59
Low ionic strength solution (LISS) helps to
Answer
C. Both of the above
60
Which test is done routinely as a part of prenatal testing ?
Answer
B. Indirect coomb s test
61
A positive coomb s test can be obtained in all EXCEPT
Answer
A. Thalassemia
62
Blood sample for anti globulin testing is to be collected in tubes with
Answer
D. Ethylene diamine tetraacetic acid
63
All the following red cell antigens are denatured by treatment with proteolytic enzymes EXCEPT
Answer
A. D antigen
64
'Stack of coin' appearance of red cells under microscopy is most suggestive of
Answer
C. Rouleaux formation
65
Which of the following best describes ZZAP reagent ?
Answer
A. Dithiothreitol + Ficin
66
A blood sample received in blood centre for 'type and screen' includes all the following tests EXCEPT
Answer
A. Crossmatch test
67
Blood component that should be compatible with recipients plasma for issual is
Answer
D. Granulocytes
68
If for a patient, ABO compatible RBC units are blood groups A / O and ABO compatible plasma units are A / AB, his most likely ABO group is
Answer
B. A
69
Dextran-Acrylamide gel is used in
Answer
B. Column agglutination technology
70
Transfusion reaction workup in blood centre includes
Answer
C. Direct antiglobulin test of recipient sample
71
Most common blood transfusion related adverse event seen is
Answer
D. Febrile non-hemolytic transfusion reaction
72
Adverse reactions to transfusion in India are reported in
Answer
B. Haemovigilance programme of India
73
Best way of preventing transfusion associated graft versus host disease (TAGVHD)
Answer
A. Irradiated blood components
74
Transfusion-Transmitted Bacterial Infections (TTBI) is most commonly associated with transfusion of
Answer
D. Platelets
75
The blood group preferred for uncrossmatched RBC transfusion in an emergency
Answer
C. O negative
76
Treating washed RBCs to glycine acid solution at pH 3 is used for
Answer
B. Antibody elution
77
Approximate chance of infection with human immunodeļ¬ciency virus per exposure after a needle stick injury is
Answer
A. 0.5 - 1 %
78
All of the following diagnostic tests are used for diagnosis of HIV infection during the window period except
Answer
A. Demonstration of antibodies by ELISA
79
Causative agent of syphilis is
Answer
C. Treponema pallidum
80
All are true about VDRL test except
Answer
D. It is the speciļ¬c test for diagnosing syphilis
81
The ļ¬rst viral marker to appear in blood after hepatitis B infection is
Answer
B. Hepatitis B surface antigen (HBs Ag)
82
Hepatitis B virus is transmitted by
Answer
D. All of the above
83
Hepatitis C virus is transmitted by
Answer
D. All of the above
84
Infective form of plasmodium vivax is
Answer
C. Sporozoite
85
Peripheral blood smear examination of a patient suspecting malaria clinically shows multiple ring forms, crescent-shaped gametocytes, with normal size RBCs. Which is the species of malarial parasite seen ?
Answer
C. Plasmodium falciparum
86
The deļ¬nitive host of plasmodium vivax is
Answer
B. Female anopheles mosquito
87
The gold standard for conļ¬rmation of active hepatitis C virus (HCV) infection is
Answer
B. Detection of HCV RNA by real-time reverse transcriptase-PCR
88
Rapid Plasma Reagin test (RPR) is
Answer
A. Used as a screening test for diagnosis of syphilis
89
The protective titer of anti-HBS antibody in the serum of an adult after receiving three doses of hepatitis B vaccination is
Answer
C. More than 10 mlU / ml
90
According to National AIDS Control Organisation Strategy, three test format (Strategy III) is used for the diagnosis of HIV infection in
Answer
A. Asymptomatic HIV patients
91
Which among the following is the most appropriate red blood cell product for intrauterine transfusions ?
Answer
C. O negative group, leuco-ļ¬ltered, irradiated, HBS negative, less than 5 days old, compatible with maternal plasma
92
Which among the following is not an indication for Rh immunoglobulin immunisation ?
Answer
A. Rh D negative female of 28 weeks pregnancy with the presence of anti D in the plasma
93
Which among the following can result in immune mediated hemolytic disease of new born ?
Answer
D. All the above
94
Which among the following is not typically a laboratory investigation observation in auto immune hemolytic anemia ?
Answer
A. Increased serum haptoglobin
95
Which of the following are useful for the management of auto immune hemolytic anemia ?
Answer
D. All the above
96
Biologic in-vivo compatibility testing even though rare is typically performed in
Answer
B. Auto immune hemolytic anemia
97
Which one among the following scenario can be considered as massive transfusion ?
Answer
A. 12 blood unit transfusions within 24 hours
98
A patient undergoing cardiac surgery with cardio-pulmonary bypass is having heparin resistance mostly due to Anti Thrombin deļ¬ciency. Which among the following will be appropriate for the management of this condition ?
Answer
C. Fresh frozen plasma
99
A blood request form is received at your blood center today for arranging 2 units of packed RBCs. It is for a 45-year-old female patient planning to undergo open heart surgery the next day involving cardiopulmonary bypass machine (CPB). Which among the following will you consider as the most appropriate RBC unit for arranging and issuing in this case ?
Answer
B. Leuco-depleted RBC
100
A patient underwent an allogenic hematopoietic stem cell transplant 7 days back. Blood group of the patient is A positive. Blood group of the donor is B positive. Patient is requiring RBC transfusion. Which blood group RBC will be appropriate for this patient ?
Answer
A. O positive
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