| Post Name | BLOOD BANK TECHNICIAN - HEALTH SERVICES |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 054/2019 |
| Category Code | 005/2018 |
| Date of Test | 15 October 2019 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
All are true about collection bag except
Answer
B. Need more storage space
2
Which among the following is the best source of safe blood?
Answer
A. Voluntary non-remunerated donors
3
The storage temperature of blood for platelet concentrate is
Answer
D. 20-24Β°C
4
Which among the following is an eligible donor?
Answer
Question Cancelled
5
Post transfusion survival of red cells in CPDA anticoagulated blood is
Answer
D. 35 days
6
Changes that occur in stored blood include all except
Answer
C. Decrease in RBC count
7
Leucodepleted blood product means
Answer
B. Removal of 70% of leucocytes with loss of less than 20% of red cells
8
Advantage of buffy coat platelets compared to PRP platelets include all except
Answer
B. Rich in leucocytes
9
Indication for packed red cell transfusion
Answer
B. Aplastic anemia
10
What is fresh frozen plasma?
Answer
A. Plasma separated from blood, frozen within 6 hours at -20Β°C
11
Cryoprecipitate may be indicated for treatment of all except
Answer
B. Thrombocytopenia
12
Indication for transfusion of irradiated blood components are all except
Answer
A. Patients with severe thrombocytopenia
13
Advantage of blood component therapy
Answer
C. Reduces volume overload
14
Age of an ideal donor should be between
Answer
B. 18-65 yrs
15
Precautions to be taken while collecting blood include all except
Answer
C. Bag should never be agitated
16
Volume of anticoagulant preservative solution in collection bag
Answer
A. 14 ml of CPDA for preserving 100 ml of blood
17
The advantage of adding additives to blood bag include
Answer
C. Extends the storage of red blood cells
18
Storage of blood in frozen state is done by adding
Answer
C. Glycerol
19
Refractoriness to platelet transfusion is due to
Answer
B. Production of allo-antibodies
20
One unit of platelet concentrate increases the platelet count by
Answer
A. 5000-10000/microliter in a 70 kg person
21
If blood group of a person is A then antibodies present in that person's plasma is
Answer
A. anti-B antibodies
22
The genes for A and B antigens are present in
Answer
B. Chromosome 9
23
Which of the following is Bombay phenotype?
Answer
D. Possess anti A, anti B, anti H and anti AB antibodies.
24
How much iron is present in 1 unit of whole blood?
Answer
Question Cancelled
25
Cryoprecipitate contains
Answer
Question Cancelled
26
Which among the following is not transmitted by blood transfusion?
Answer
Question Cancelled
27
Antibodies present on the surface of RBC is tested by
Answer
C. Direct Coombs test in RBC
28
The final anticoagulant to blood ratio in a whole blood autologous unit is
Answer
B. 1:7
29
Which is the most common blood group found in Indian population?
Answer
D. Blood group O+
30
The anti D antibody belongs to which class of immunoglobulin?
Answer
C. IgG
31
A person has A negative blood group. Which of the following blood groups are compatible for him?
Answer
D. Blood group O negative
32
Which of the following is correct about platelet transfusion?
Answer
A. Platelets are stored at 20-24 degree Celsius
33
Which of the following is FALSE in persons with O positive blood group?
Answer
B. They do not have antibodies against both A and B antigens in their plasma
34
Individuals with D negative blood group have one of the following on their RBC membrane.
Answer
B. Antigen RhCE
35
Which blood group system is based on cold reacting antibodies?
Answer
C. MNS blood group system
36
Which one of the following is NOT a naturally occurring antibody?
Answer
D. Anti D antibody
37
Plasmapheresis is done for one of the following clinical conditions.
Answer
B. Multiple myeloma
38
Transfusion of O negative blood group can trigger severe transfusion reaction in
Answer
D. genotype hβΊ hβΊ
39
The gene for Rh antigen is present on
Answer
A. Chromosome 1
40
Biochemical composition of blood group A substance is
Answer
B. Fucose - Galactose - N-acetyl galactosamine - Protein [branch: N-acetyl galactosamine]
41
Indirect antiglobulin test is used in blood bank for
Answer
D. All of the above
42
Which of the following is NOT a method to screen blood donors for HIV in blood bank?
Answer
D. Western Blot
43
Which blood component contains a volume of less than 75 ml usually?
Answer
B. Platelet Concentrate
44
Which type of antibody is most commonly involved in Warm Auto Immune Hemolytic Anemia?
Answer
A. IgG
45
Polyspecific Coombs reagent used in blood bank contains
Answer
B. IgG and C3d
46
Which of the following reagent is not used for weak D (Du) testing?
Answer
A. IgM anti D
47
Peripheral Smear is used to screen for presence of which organism in blood donors?
Answer
A. Plasmodium
48
Cryoprecipitate is used for which of the following disease?
Answer
A. Hemophilia A
49
What is the diameter of a red cell?
Answer
B. 6-8 microns
50
Column Agglutination Technology can be used for
Answer
D. All of the above
51
Apheresis procedure to collect a Single Donor Platelet takes approximately
Answer
D. One hour
52
What is the gauge of needle used in blood bag for whole blood collection?
Answer
C. 16 G
53
Anticoagulant used in blood bags
Answer
C. CPD (Citrate Phosphate Dextrose)
54
Direct Coombs Test is performed on
Answer
A. Red cells
55
Which of the following is not true about IgM antibodies?
Answer
D. Crosses placenta
56
Which of the following is NOT tested as a work up of post transfusion Reaction Investigation?
Answer
D. IgM estimation
57
Major contents of buffy coat are
Answer
B. Platelets and leukocytes
58
What is the specific gravity of Copper Sulphate stock solution routinely prepared in blood banks?
Answer
Question Cancelled
59
Which of the following is a room temperature reactive antibody?
Answer
A. Anti Leα΅
60
Levey-Jennings Chart is used in blood bank for
Answer
A. Quality control
61
Instrument used to measure rpm of centrifuge is
Answer
A. Tachometer
62
Which of the following is a reagent used to disrupt disulphide bonds of IgM?
Answer
A. Dithiothreitol
63
Which of the following is a technique used to reduce Febrile Non Hemolytic Transfusion Reactions?
Answer
A. Leucoreduction
64
A platelet concentrate with visible red cell contamination should be issued within
Answer
A. One day
65
Removal of antibodies from the surface of red cells is called
Answer
A. Elution
66
What is the action of albumin in blood group serology?
Answer
A. Increases dielectric constant of medium
67
What is the percentage of albumin used in blood group serology?
Answer
A. 22%
68
Which of the following is a characteristic of Donath-Landsteiner Antibody?
Answer
C. Biphasic Antibody
69
Which of the following incompatibility can produce haemolytic disease of newborn?
Answer
C. Both of the above
70
Blood bank records are kept for a minimum period of
Answer
C. 5 yrs
71
Which of the following is an ideal blood donor?
Answer
B. Voluntary blood donor
72
Which is the standard colour code for labelling blood group A?
Answer
B. Yellow
73
Blood samples of donors in pilot tubes and recipient samples should be preserved for ______ days after issue of blood after crossmatch
Answer
B. 7
74
Universal Blood Donor Group is
Answer
D. O
75
Which of the following is an acceptable minimum titre for quality control of Anti A Antisera with A1 cells?
Answer
C. 256
76
What is the unit of Avidity result while performing quality control of antisera?
Answer
A. Seconds
77
Saline replacement technique is used in suspected cases of
Answer
B. Rouleaux formation
78
When mother is AB positive and baby's group is A positive, what is the ideal choice of packed cells for a baby of 2 months age?
Answer
B. A positive
79
Blood issued for exchange transfusion in neonates should be
Answer
D. Less than 5 days old
80
Principle of Saliva testing for soluble blood group substances
Answer
A. Neutralisation
81
The best diagnostic marker for recent Hepatitis B virus infection is
Answer
B. Anti HBc IgM
82
HIV genome is
Answer
A. ssRNA
83
Standard confirmatory test for syphilis is
Answer
C. TPHA test
84
Risk of transmission of HIV is maximum through
Answer
B. Blood transfusion
85
'Gold standard' test for diagnosis of Hepatitis C virus infection
Answer
D. HCV RNA detection
86
Peripheral blood smear in falciparum malaria shows
Answer
B. Ring forms and gametocytes
87
Virus most often causing infection in organ transplant recipients is
Answer
C. Cytomegalovirus
88
Window period in HIV indicates
Answer
B. Time interval between infection and detection of antibodies against HIV
89
Earliest serological marker elevated in Hepatitis B virus infection is
Answer
D. HBsAg
90
Carrier state is common in
Answer
B. Hepatitis B virus
91
Hard chancre is characteristic of
Answer
A. Primary syphilis
92
Which of the following serological test is commonly employed for the diagnosis of syphilis?
Answer
A. Venereal disease research laboratory test
93
Which of the following test is used for the laboratory diagnosis of cytomegalovirus infection?
Answer
D. All of the above
94
The antigens present in the envelope of hepatitis B virus is
Answer
A. HBsAg
95
Which of the following hepatitis B genes are used for the preparation of recombinant hepatitis B vaccine?
Answer
A. HBsAg gene
96
After exposure to blood potentially infected with HIV, anti retroviral therapy and post exposure prophylaxis ideally be started within
Answer
A. Two hours
97
Which HIV testing strategy is used for ensuring blood transfusion safety?
Answer
A. Strategy I
98
Who discovered malarial parasite?
Answer
A. Charles Louis Alphonse Laveran
99
Which of the following may cause biological false-positive reactions in serologic test of syphilis?
Answer
D. All of the above
100
The most common cause of transfusion transmitted hepatitis is
Answer
B. HBV
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