| Post Name | Blood Bank Technician |
|---|---|
| Department | Health Services |
| Question Paper Code | 115/2022 |
| Category Code | 648/2021 |
| Date of Test | 16 November 2022 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Gauge size of needle used for blood donation :
Answer
D. 16 G
2
Disease not transmitted by blood transfusion is :
Answer
C. Hepatitis A
3
Platelet concentrate is prepared by :
Answer
B. Light spin followed by heavy spin
4
Plasmapheresis is done for the following clinical condition :
Answer
A. Multiple myeloma
5
Blood can be stored upto how much days with CPDA solution :
Answer
B. 35
6
Most suitable diluent for preparing a solution of 8% Bovine albumin :
Answer
C. Normal saline
7
The storage temperature for Fresh Frozen Plasma is :
Answer
Question Cancelled
8
Minimum weight for a blood donor is :
Answer
A. 110 lbs
9
Cryoprecipitate is used for the treatment of :
Answer
B. Haemophilia A
10
Blood collection is permanently deferred in :
Answer
C. History of jaundice of uncertain cause
11
The venipuncture site must be cleaned with a scrub solution containing :
Answer
C. Isopropyl alcohol
12
All donor blood testing must include :
Answer
B. Serological test for syphilis
13
An important determinant of platelet viability following storage is :
Answer
A. Plasma pH
14
The concentration of 2,3 - di phospho glycerate is decreased during storage in a unit of :
Answer
D. Red blood cells
15
An Individual with D negative blood group have one of the following on their
RBC membrane :
Answer
B. Antigen RhCE
16
The enzyme involved in conversion of H substance into A and B antigens :
Answer
C. Glycosyl transferase
17
hh genotype
Answer
C. Bombay
18
The anti A and anti B immune antibodies are mostly :
Answer
A. IgG
19
Immunodominant sugar of H antigens :
Answer
C. L – fucose
20
The blood group system based on cold reacting antibodies :
Answer
C. MNS system
21
The antibody in the Lutheran system that is best detected at lower temperature is :
Answer
D. anti-Lua
22
Which of the following red cell antigens are found on glycophorin A?
Answer
A. M, N
23
The Kell antigen is :
Answer
C. strongly immunogenic
24
The antibodies of the Kidd blood group system :
Answer
B. react best by the Indirect Coomb's Test
25
Which of the following blood group is compatible for A negative blood group?
Answer
D. O negative
26
Most blood group systems are inherited as :
Answer
A. Autosomal co dominant
27
Both parents are group AB. Which of the following are possible in offspring :
Answer
D. All of the above
28
Colour of antiserum AB is :
Answer
Question Cancelled
29
Blood cells are produced mainly from :
Answer
D. Bone marrow
30
Which of the following is not true about citrate as an anticoagulant?
Answer
C. It prevent clotting by inhibiting thrombin
31
Phlebotomy means :
Answer
B. Collection of blood
32
Delay in releasing tourniquet during venipuncture causing :
Answer
A. Escape of fluid and haemo concentration
33
Blood group antigens of ABO system are made up of mainly :
Answer
B. Proteins
34
Blood group having both anti A and anti B in their sera :
Answer
C. O group
35
Which is not correct about H antigen?
Answer
D. H antigen present in Bombay group individuals
36
Hybridoma technique is used :
Answer
A. To produce monoclonal antibodies
37
Coombs test is otherwise known as :
Answer
B. Anti Human Globulin test
38
In Indirect Coombs test ,sensitivity can be increased by the addition of :
Answer
D. All the above
39
In Indirect Coombs test, sensitivity can be increased by the addition of :
Answer
D. All the above
40
Which type of cells are used as reagent cells in Coombs test :
Answer
B. Rh positive O group cells
41
False negative results in AHG test may occur due to :
Answer
D. All the above
42
False positive results in coombs test may resulted from :
Answer
D. All the above
43
During antibody detection cells that acts as auto control are :
Answer
B. Patient own cells
44
Antibodies that are set to be ‘complete, cold and bigger in size’ are :
Answer
A. IgM
45
During preservation of reagent red cells, cryoprotective agent is :
Answer
C. Both
46
Characteristics of IgG antibody include :
Answer
D. All the above
47
Technical errors that leads to transfusion reactions except :
Answer
D. Donors unwillingness to donate blood
48
Majority of transfusion reactions are of type :
Answer
B. FNHTR
49
Patients who receive repeated transfusions may develop :
Answer
A. Haemosiderosis
50
Non-haemolytic transfusion reaction include :
Answer
D. (B) and (C) are correct
51
Result of a compatibility test is observed as :
Answer
D. Either agglutination or haemolysis
52
Intravascular transfusion reactions are due to :
Answer
B. IgM and complement
53
AHTR means :
Answer
B. Acute Hemolytic Transfusion Reaction
54
Colour of AHG reagent is :
Answer
D. Green
55
For DAT patient cell suspension is prepared as :
Answer
A. 2-4%
56
LISS is a type of :
Answer
B. Saline solution
57
A serological marker of HBV infection indicating active viral replication or high infectivity :
Answer
B. HBeAg
58
Which statement is true regarding P. Vivax :
Answer
C. Dormant hepatic stages called hypnozoites can cause relapse
59
T. Pallidum may be demonstrated by:
Answer
D. All of the above
60
HCV belongs to the family :
Answer
A. Flaviviridae
61
Antibody marker of HBV acute infection is :
Answer
D. anti HBC IgM
A 9 115/2022
62
Identify a non specific test for syphilis from the following :
Answer
C. TRUST
63
Which among the following is a DNA virus?
Answer
B. HBV
64
Malaria antigen test is based on the principle :
Answer
A. CIA
65
Which among the following is not a character of HIV 2?
Answer
C. Contains the envelope protein gp41 and gp120
66
Australia antigen is the surface component of :
Answer
D. HBV
67
Malignant tertiary malaria is caused by :
Answer
A. P. falciparum
68
Find out the false statement from the following regarding specific treponemal tests :
Answer
B. Tests may become non reactive in late syphilis
69
The risk of HIV transmission through infected blood transfusion is estimated to be :
Answer
D. 90%
70
Serological marker of active HCV infection is :
Answer
B. HCV RNA
71
Ham test is used for the definitive diagnosis of :
Answer
B. PNH
72
Find out the false statement regarding HDNB :
Answer
D. Conjugated bilirubin is increased
73
Anticoagulant to blood ratio of CPDA-1 in a blood bag is :
Answer
B. 1:7
74
Laboratory diagnosis of AIHA include :
Answer
D. All of the above
75
Amniocentesis in indicated when the maternal antibody titre is :
Answer
C. 1 : 32
76
Each unit of whole blood increase the Hb level :
Answer
B. 1 g/dl
77
Name the chart used to measure the severity of HDN :
Answer
A. Liley’s chart
78
Massive transfusion can lead to :
Answer
D. All of the above
A 11 115/2022
79
Identify a false statement regarding multiple transfusion :
Answer
A. Whole blood transfusion is preferred
80
Which blood component is administered in Von Willebrand disease?
Answer
B. Cryoprecipitate
81
Which of the following methods of transfusion eliminates the risk of alloimmunization,
haemolytic, febrile and allergic reaction and transmission of diseases?
Answer
C. Autologous transfusion
82
A person who needs red blood cell transfusion has a history of febrile transfusion reaction,
which is the component of choice in this case?
Answer
C. Leukocyte poor red blood cell
83
Intra operative blood salvage, Post operative Blood salvage, Acute isovolaemic haemodilution
are types of :
Answer
D. Autologous transfusion methods
84
The mandatory Pre transfusion tests to be done for autologous transfusion are :
Answer
A. ABO Typing and Rh Typing
85
Which of the following is suitable blood for exchange transfusion in case of Haemolytic
disease of new born caused by ABO incompatibility?
Answer
D. Blood group O, with Rh negative blood type
115/2022 12 A
86
The interval between two apheresis procedures should be at least :
Answer
D. 48 hours
87
Of the blood oxygen carriers which of the following has the longest shelf life?
Answer
B. Perflourochemical compounds
88
Which of the following is used as sedimenting agent for granulocytapheresis?
Answer
C. Hydroxyethyl starch
89
A form of apheresis which is a standard therapy used for treatment of Cutaneous T Cell
Lymphoma and also Graft versus host reaction is :
Answer
C. Photopheresis
90
Haemoglobin based Oxygen carriers do not require –––––––––– for Oxygen release.
Answer
A. 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate
91
As part of specific requirements all blood units should be typed for Rh D antigen and Du
Antigen. All RhD negative and Du positive persons are considered as D positive when they
are
Answer
B. –––––––––– :
92
Which of the following is false regarding quality control of ABO antisera?
Answer
D. Weekly quality assessment
A 13 115/2022
93
For Quality assurance in Rh grouping we use :
Answer
D. Use of one IgM and one blend of IgM+ IgG
94
Acceptable titre as part of quality control for monoclonal Anti A and Anti B sera is :
Answer
C. 1 : 256
95
Inclusion of O cells and autocontrol is a must in reverse grouping to rule out :
Answer
D. All the above
96
Polyspecific antihuman globulin is usually available as a combination of anti IgG and a anti
complement component except :
Answer
B. Anti C4 d
97
All records and registers pertained to blood bank should be maintained for :
Answer
C. 5 years
98
All blood banks in India is regulated by :
Answer
A. Drug and Cosmetic Act
99
As part of occurrence reporting a sentinel event is that defined as :
Answer
D. An unexpected occurrence involving death or serious injury
100
Periodic Medical audit in blood banks is to be conducted by :
Answer
C. Hospital transfusion committee
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