| Post Name | Boiler Attendant |
|---|---|
| Department | Pharmaceutical Corporation (I.M) Kerala LTD |
| Question Paper Code | 109/2026/OL |
| Category Code | 370/2025 |
| Date of Test | 2 June 2026 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
What is the unit of mass in system international units?
Answer
C. Kilogram
2
The Unit of temperature in FPS system of units is ____________.
Answer
A. Degree Fahrenheit
3
How much is the force that import an acceleration of 1 M/s2 to a body of mass 1 kg?
Answer
B. 1 Newton
4
What is the unit of power in MKS system?
Answer
D. Watt
5
Joule is the unit of _____________ in SI unit.
Answer
A. Work
6
Which one of the following quantity have the unit Newton per square meter in SI units?
Answer
A. Pressure
7
1 N/M2 is equal to _____________.
Answer
B. 1 Pa
8
Which one of the following is a fundamental unit?
Answer
B. Kilogram
9
The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 gram of water through 1oC is known as _____________.
Answer
D. Calorie
10
Which one of the following statement is true?
Answer
C. Absolute pressure = Gauge pressure + Atmospheric pressure
11
Dryness fraction of dry saturated steam is
Answer
B. 1
12
On heating above dry steam point we get
Answer
A. Superheated steam
13
With increase in pressure, boiling point of a liquid
Answer
B. increases
14
Heat required to raise the temperature of water from zero degree Celsius to saturation temperature is called
Answer
D. Sensible heat
15
Heat supplied to convert saturated water into saturated steam is called:
Answer
A. Latent heat
16
During latent heating, the temperature
Answer
C. remains the same
17
Wet steam contains
Answer
B. water particles and steam
18
Steam with dryness fraction less than 1 is called
Answer
B. Wet steam
19
In throttling calorimeter steam passes through
Answer
D. Small orifice
20
Bucket calorimeter works on:
Answer
A. heat balance principle
21
Stirling boiler uses
Answer
C. Three steam drums
22
Babcock and Wilcox boiler is a
Answer
B. Water tube boiler
23
The function of an economiser is to
Answer
B. Heat feed water
24
Draught in a boiler furnace is required for
Answer
A. Fuel combustion
25
Lancashire boiler has
Answer
B. Two furnace tubes
26
Cochran boiler is a
Answer
C. Multi-tubular vertical boiler
27
In multi pass boilers, gases change direction
Answer
B. Several times
28
In locomotive boiler blast pipe improves
Answer
D. Draught
29
External furnace boilers are generally used for
Answer
A. Large steam production
30
The furnace of Cochran boiler is:
Answer
A. Hemispherical
31
Scotch marine boiler is a
Answer
B. Fire tube boiler
32
Packaged boilers are easy to
Answer
D. All of the above
33
Which of the following boiler mountings is fitted slightly below the normal water level?
Answer
C. Fusible plug
34
Which draught system uses both forced draught and induced draught fans?
Answer
C. Balanced draught
35
The ratio of actual evaporation to equivalent evaporation is known as:
Answer
B. Factor of evaporation
36
In a steam power plant, the economiser is installed:
Answer
C. In the flue gas path before chimney
37
Foaming in boilers is mainly caused by:
Answer
B. Excessive dissolved solids and oil impurities
38
A Benson boiler operates:
Answer
C. Above critical pressure
39
In a La Mount boiler has
Answer
A. One drum
40
The equivalent evaporation of a boiler is defined as the amount of water evaporated:
Answer
A. From and at 100oC
41
Which boiler accessory improves the efficiency of a boiler by preheating air?
Answer
B. Air preheater
42
Which mounting is used to indicate the water level inside the boiler?
Answer
B. Water level indicator
43
Which device is used to supply water into a boiler?
Answer
A. Injector
44
In a fire-tube boiler:
Answer
B. Flue gases flow through tubes
45
Which mounting is used to remove mud and sediments from the boiler?
Answer
A. Blow-off cock
46
What is the pressure condition at the furnace exit in an induced draught system?
Answer
A. Lower than atmospheric pressure
47
In a forced draught system, where is the fan generally positioned?
Answer
D. Before the furnace near the air inlet
48
Why induced draught fans are manufactured using special materials?
Answer
C. They are exposed to hot and corrosive flue gases
49
In a balanced draught system, the furnace pressure is maintained:
Answer
B. Slightly below atmospheric pressure
50
Frictional loss in a chimney depends on which of the following factors?
Answer
D. All of the above
51
What happens if the flue gas temperature rises beyond the condition for maximum discharge?
Answer
C. The discharge decreases
52
Draught is commonly measured in:
Answer
C. Pascals
53
The efficiency of a chimney is defined as the ratio of:
Answer
C. Energy of draught produced to the extra heat carried away by flue gases
54
Mechanical draught is generated using:
Answer
B. Fans or blowers
55
Balanced draught is obtained by combining:
Answer
D. Forced draught and induced draught
56
The process of converting water into steam by heating is called
Answer
B. Evaporation
57
Boiler efficiency is defined as:
Answer
C. Ratio of heat utilized in steam generation to heat supplied by fuel
58
Which instrument is commonly used to measure boiler pressure?
Answer
B. Pressure gauge
59
Equivalent evaporation of a boiler is expressed in terms of:
Answer
B. kg of water evaporated from and at 100oC per kg of fuel
60
During a boiler trial, the main purpose is to determine :
Answer
B. Boiler performance under working conditions
61
Which of the following is a major heat loss in boilers?
Answer
A. Heat carried away by flue gases
62
Which boiler house record is most useful for analysing fuel economy and efficiency trends?
Answer
C. Fuel consumption and steam generation record
63
Which of the following heat losses cannot be completely avoided in a boiler even under ideal operating conditions?
Answer
B. Heat loss due to flue gases
64
Lignite comes under the following category:
Answer
A. Solid Fuel
65
Liquid fuels have: (i) Higher Calorific Value (ii) Lower Calorific Value (iii) Higher Efficiency
Answer
C. Only (i) and (iii)
66
Which of the following has the highest calorific value?
Answer
B. Coal gas
67
Gaseous fuels mainly consists of:
Answer
A. Methane
68
The process of passing air and a large amount of steam over waste coal at about 650oC is known as:
Answer
D. Mond gas
69
The principal constituents of a fuel are:
Answer
B. Carbon and Hydrogen
70
Which instrument is used for finding the higher calorific value of solid and liquid fuels?
Answer
A. Bomb calorimeter
71
Which of the following statement is incorrect?
Answer
C. The solid fuels have higher efficiency than liquid fuels
72
Which unit is standard for expressing the calorific value of a gaseous fuel?
Answer
D. KJ/m3
73
According to Dulong's formula, which element contributes most significantly to a fuels high calorific value?
Answer
A. Hydrogen
74
Bank firing in boiler is carried out to:
Answer
C. Keep the boiler ready for quick start
75
Which mode of heat transfer takes place through vacuum?
Answer
C. Radiation
76
Zeroth Law of Thermodynamics defines:
Answer
C. Temperature
77
Minimum air required for complete combustion of solid or liquid fuel containing constituents in the ratio of C:H2:S:O2
Answer
B. Air/(kg fuel) = (100/23)[(8/3)C + 8(H₂ − O₂/8) + S]
78
The quantity of air in kg in excess of the theoretical minimum air required for complete combustion of the solid and liquid fuels is called ___________.
Answer
A. excess air
79
Air leakage in an air preheater (APH) is completely determined by comparing:
Answer
C. Oxygen (O2) percentage in flue gas at inlet and outlet
80
In flue gas analysis, Orsat apparatus is used to measure:
Answer
C. Composition of flue gases
81
Which of the following factors does the quantity of heat transferred depends on? (i) Mass of the substance (ii) Specific heat of the substance (iii) Temperature difference
Answer
D. All of the above (i), (ii), (iii)
82
If carbon burns completely, the product formed is:
Answer
B. CO2
83
The percentage of excess air supplied can be determined from:
Answer
B. Flue gas analysis
84
Feed water treatment in the boiler is done to overcome _____________.
Answer
D. Both (1) and (2)
85
Hardness of water indicates:
Answer
B. presence of scale-forming salts
86
Permanent hardness of feed water can be removed by _____________.
Answer
C. Chemical treatment
87
Deaeration of feed water is necessary to reduce:
Answer
C. Corrosion caused by oxygen
88
The hardness of feed water is measured in __________ unit.
Answer
A. Parts per million
89
Traditional chemical water softening process is,
Answer
B. Lime-soda
90
Foaming of boiler feed water indicates the presence of,
Answer
A. Oil
91
Temporary hardness of feed water can be removed by _____________.
Answer
D. Boiling
92
Treatment method that removes impurities through temperature rise of feed water is
Answer
B. Heat treatment
93
A mechanical pressure filter removes suspended matter from feed water by:
Answer
A. Trapping particles within a porous medium
94
Final stage of erosion failure in a boiler tube is,
Answer
C. Rupture or leakage
95
Expansion of TDS in boiler feed water is:
Answer
A. Total Dissolved Solids
96
The Boilers Act came into force in the year:
Answer
B. 1923
97
Boiler accidents must be reported under:
Answer
C. Section 18
98
The Boilers Act was enacted mainly to ensure:
Answer
B. Boiler safety
99
The main purpose of IBR is to:
Answer
A. Standardize boiler inspection and safety
100
The hydraulic test pressure is usually:
Answer
D. Greater than working pressure
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