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Kerala PSC Branch Manager-District Co Operative Bank Previous Question Paper – 005/2019

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Post NameBRANCH MANAGER-DISTRICT CO OPERATIVE BANK
Question Paper Code005/2019
Category Code433/2009, 434/2009
Date of Test4 January 2019
Medium of QuestionENGLISH
Exam TypeOMR Examination
Total Questions100
1
The International Co-operative Alliance (ICA) was formed in the year :
Answer
B. 1895
2
The country in which Co-operative movement was first originated?
Answer
D. England
3
The President of a Co-operative society is an :
Answer
A. Officer
4
What was the objective of National Policy on Co- operatives framed in 2002?
Answer
D. All of the above
5
Which year National Development Council (NDC) had recommended a National Policy on Co-operative Societies?
Answer
B. 1958
6
A famous personality who has adopted new measures for giving relief to the people living in urban areas of Germany?
Answer
B. Herr Franz Schulze
7
The Multi-State Co-operative Societies Act 2002 of India has incorporated Co-operative values and principles in its ————————— schedule.
Answer
B. Second
8
The Committee headed by ————————— recommended the principle ‘One Man One Vote’.
Answer
C. Mac Lagan
9
In which Five Year Plan, National Co-operative Consumers’ Federation was established?
Answer
D. Fourth
10
The Kaira District Milk Producers Union was formed in the year :
Answer
C. 1946
11
Which committee recommended the formation of NABARD?
Answer
A. B.Sivaraman
12
Interest rates of deposits of Co-operative Credit Societies are fixed by :
Answer
D. Registrar
13
Operation flood III was launched by:
Answer
A. NDDB
14
Rochdale friendly Co-operative Society was formed in :
Answer
B. 1830
15
LAMPS stands for :
Answer
A. Large Sized Adivasi Multipurpose Co-operative Societies
16
The first All India Co-operative Congress held at:
Answer
B. Bombay
17
Who had visited India in the capacity of a Co-operative Consultant to the Planning Commission in 1957?
Answer
A. Sir. Malcolm Darling
18
Regional Rural Banks came into existence as per the recommendations of ————————— Committee.
Answer
C. Narsimhan
19
NABARD started functioning from
Answer
C. July 1982
20
The shortcomings in the Act of 1904 was removed by another legislation known as
Answer
A. Co-operative Societies Act of 1912.
21
The first Diary Co-operative Society in India was registered at
Answer
B. Allahabad in Uttar Pradesh
22
——————— recommended the adoption of Crop Loan system:
Answer
A. The All India Rural Credit Survey Committee
23
————————— is the federation of central Co-operative banks in a state:
Answer
D. State Co-operative Bank
24
Organisational structure followed by co-operatives in India:
Answer
C. Federal
25
————————— has been playing an important role in the development of Co-operative Marketing in India:
Answer
A. NAFED
26
IFFCO First put up two fertilizer plants in the State of:
Answer
B. Gujarat
27
————— is an apex organization of Consumers’ Co-operatives in India.
Answer
A. NCCF
28
The National Co-operative Housing Federation of India was set up in the year :
Answer
C. 1969
29
Kerala Co-operative Societies Act came into force with effect from :
Answer
A. 15-05-1969
30
The final authority of a co-operative society shall be vested in the:
Answer
B. General Body
31
The committee of a society is liable to call a Special General Body Meeting after getting a requisition either from :
Answer
A. Registrar or 1/5 of total members
32
The quorum for a meeting of Committee shall be more than :
Answer
C. 50% of the total number of members of that committee
33
Who shall be the custodian of cash securities and other properties of the society?
Answer
D. Secretary
34
Principal State Partnership Fund can be utilized for the purpose of:
Answer
D. All of the above 0 0 6 A
35
Every co-operative society shall transfer an amount not less than ————————— % of its net profit to the Reserve Fund:
Answer
B. 15%
36
Every society with limited liability which are accepting deposits and not coming within the Banking Regulation Act shall maintain minimum liquid cover of 25% on :
Answer
C. Total demand and time liabilities
37
Audit fees is exempted from which of the following societies :
Answer
D. Farming societies
38
Registrar shall issue an order of inquiry in a society:
Answer
D. All of these
39
Any dispute arises in the affairs of a co-operative society shall be decided by:
Answer
A. Co-operative Arbitration Court and Registrar
40
One of the following is not a reason for winding up of a society:
Answer
B. Society has not commenced working within five months of its registration
41
The liquidator shall complete the winding up proceedings within a period of ————————— from the date of his appointment :
Answer
B. 3 years
42
A co-operative bank which has been affiliated with the Deposit Insurance and Credit Guarantee Corporation is called :
Answer
A. insured co-operative bank
43
One can prefer an appeal against the order of the Registrar to the Kerala Co-operative Tribunal within ————————— days from the date of such order :
Answer
C. 60 days
44
The term of office of the members of’ the general body of’ State Co-operative Union shall be ————————— years :
Answer
C. 5 years
45
SARFAESI ACT came into force in:
Answer
C. 2002
46
————————— are the foundation stone of the grass root level co-operative credit structure in India :
Answer
A. PACS
47
The executive and administrative functions of’ District Central Co-operative Banks are carried out by :
Answer
C. Chief Executive Officer
48
The nodal agency at the state level for chnnelization of funds from RBI/ NABARD:
Answer
A. SCB’s
49
Urban Co-operative Banks are controlled by :
Answer
C. Both RBI and Co-operative Registrar
50
Which Act lays down the law relating to payment of customer’s cheque by a bank and also protection available to a bank?
Answer
B. Negotiable Instruments Act
51
Capturing the essential required particulars from the paper’ cheque to form an electronic image is Called :
Answer
C. Truncation of cheque
52
Which of the following grants protection to a collecting bank?
Answer
A. Bank has in good faith and without negligence received payment for a customer in properly opened account
53
In societies. membership to local bodies is allowed as per :
Answer
B. Kerala Co-operative Societies
54
The Bankers’ right to retain securities etc.. in respect of general balance due by their owner to the banker is called :
Answer
B. General Lien
55
For Central or State Government, to file suit, the limitation period is ————————— years as per limitation Act.1963
Answer
D. 30 years
56
A term loan shall be classified as Non Performing. if interest and / or installment of principal of that loan remain overdue for a period of more than ————————— days:
Answer
B. 90 days
57
Risks arise out of external and uncontrollable factors are called :
Answer
A. Systematic risk
58
All urban co-operative banks are required to maintain stipulated level of :
Answer
C. Both CRR & SLR
59
For what purpose the Treasury Bills are issued?
Answer
A. For the short term requirements of the Government
60
The rate at which RBI borrow money from banks is called :
Answer
C. Reverse Repo Rate
61
————————— involves vertical expansion of functions and responsibility of the job holder.
Answer
C. Job Enrichment
62
One of the following is not a technique of De Jobbing :
Answer
A. Pyramid Organisation
63
Employing a competent and experienced person already working with another reputed company in the same or different industry is called :
Answer
D. Poaching
64
The practice of’ identifying. studying and building upon best practices in the industry or in the world is called :
Answer
B. Benchmarking
65
One of the following is not coming under On the job training :
Answer
B. Vestibule Training
66
A small group of people who voluntarily perform quality improvement activities at the work place is called :
Answer
D. Quality Circle
67
Who introduced the concept Management By Objective (MBO)?
Answer
C. Peter F Drucker
68
As per Herzberg’s Motivation — Hygiene Theory. One of’ the following is a hygiene factor :
Answer
A. Salary
69
Prevention of’ Money Laundering Act passed in the year :
Answer
B. 2002
70
One of the following is not a Credit Rating Institution :
Answer
B. ARCIL
71
The appropriate objective of an enterprise is :
Answer
C. Maximization of owner’s wealth
72
The reciprocal of the earnings yield is called the ————————— ratio.
Answer
B. Price - earning
73
Net working capital means :
Answer
C. Excess of current assets over current liabilities
74
Capitalization of undistributed profit is called :
Answer
D. Bonus shares
75
The use of debt capital along with the owners’ equity in the capital structure is described as :
Answer
A. Financial leverage
76
The rate of return foregone on the next best alternative investment opportunity of comparable risk is termed as :
Answer
A. Opportunity cost
77
The discount rate which equates the present values of an investment’s cash inflows and out flows is called :
Answer
D. Internal Rate of’ Return
78
————————— indicates the level of sales at which costs and revenues are in equilibrium.
Answer
C. Break Even Point
79
Agency costs increases with the increase of ————————— in the capital mix.
Answer
B. Debt
80
Unsecured promissory notes issued by better rated firms to raise short term funds is called :
Answer
C. Commercial Paper
81
The parameters that invite corrective action from the RBI does not include :
Answer
B. Profitability Ratio
82
The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code came into force in the year :
Answer
C. 2016
83
One of the following is not true in the case of Payment Banks :
Answer
B. Payment banks can lend money
84
The concept of Small Finance Banks was given by ————————— Committee on financial inclusion :
Answer
A. Nachiket mor
85
Delphi method of estimating future demand for a product or service is associated with :
Answer
B. Expert Opinion method
86
Economic growth potential that can result from shift in population’s age structure is called :
Answer
C. Demographic Dividend
87
Which of the following is an example for product attribute?
Answer
A. Product Design
88
Who introduced the concept Bottom of the Pyramid?
Answer
D. C.K.Prahalad
89
The practice of selling two or more separate products together for a single, lower price than what the items would cost if sold separately is called :
Answer
A. Price Bundling
90
Which of the following is not the stage of new product development?
Answer
D. Market Segmentation
91
Consumers who like to avoid change and rely on traditional products until they are no longer available are called :
Answer
B. Laggards
92
A firm‘s practice of setting a very low price for one or more of its products with the intent to drive its competition out of business is called :
Answer
B. Predatory pricing
93
In which stage of product life cycle. the company takes decision whether to maintain. harvest or drop the product?
Answer
D. Decline
94
The objective of Test Marketing is to :
Answer
C. Predict product’s performance and its future
95
Design products on a computer and then produce rough models to show potential consumers for their reactions is called :
Answer
A. Rapid prototyping
96
How many banks merged with SBI in the year 2017?
Answer
C. 6
97
Time norm for disposal of loan application below Rs. 25.000 under priority sector is :
Answer
A. 15 days
98
Statements to be prepared and submitted by co-operative society to the Registrar include:
Answer
D. All of these
99
Which agency is in charge of’ planning and coordination of co-operative training programmes in the country?
Answer
A. NCCT
100
VMNICOM was set up in the year 1967 at :
Answer
C. Pune

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