| Post Name | Branch Manager - District Co-operative Bank |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 035/2022 |
| Category Code | 122/2019, 125/2019, 127/2019, 279/2021, 282/2021, 339/2021, 341/2021 |
| Date of Test | 4 April 2022 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Robert Owen was born on
Answer
A. 14/05/1771
2
______ was the first women member of the Rochdale Equitable pioneer society.
Answer
C. Eliza Brierley
3
SCWS established in the year
Answer
D. 1868
4
“Each for all and all for each” was first used by
Answer
B. Raiffeisen
5
Luigi Luzzati was working in _______ area by starting co-operative.
Answer
B. Urban
6
Maclagan Committee submitted its report in the year
Answer
B. 1915
7
Which report is known as “The Magna Carta” of Co-operative Movement in India ?
Answer
A. AIRCSC
8
National Co-operative Development Corporation established on
Answer
C. 14/03/1963
9
The Chief Editor of “Kerala Co-operative Journal published by State Co-operative
Journal” published by State Co-operative Union
Answer
A. Chairman
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
A. ,
11
Registering Authority of Dairy Co-operative Societies in Kerala is
Answer
D. Director of Dairy Development
12
_____ of KCS Act 1969 deals with the deposit Gurantee Scheme.
Answer
B. Section 57(
13
Co-operative Arbitration Courts are constituted as per _____ of KCS Act.
Answer
C. Section 70(
14
Appointment of vigilance officer as per _______ of KCS Act.
Answer
B. Section 68(
15
Library in Co-operative Societies as per _____ of KCS Act.
Answer
A. Section 74(G)
16
Co-operative Credit Societies Act came into force on
Answer
B. 25/03/1904
17
The Section 74(
Answer
C. Insured Co-operative Bank
18
Co-operative principles are listed in
Answer
C. Schedule II
19
If an application for registering a society is refused, appeal should be filed
Answer
C. Within 60 days
20
Section 91 deals with
Answer
B. Functions of State Co-operative Union
21
Total number of members in the Managing Committee of Kerala Bank is
Answer
B. 21
22
Procedure for the creation of Gehan deals in Rule
Answer
C. 51(
23
Match the correct codes :
a. Passive Participation i. People participate in joint analysis,
which leads to action plans and the
formation of new local co-operatives and
the strengthening of existing ones.
b. Participation for material incentives ii. Unilateral announcement by
co-operative management without
listening to people’s responses.
c. Participation in information giving iii. Members participate by taking initiatives
and by consultation independent of management to improve
their co-operatives.
d. Interactive participation iv. People participate by answering
questions posed by the researcher
using surveys.
e. Active participation v. People participate in providing
resources.
Answer
A. a – ii, b – v, c – iv, d – i, e – iii
24
Identify the correct statement :
Statement 1 : Brainstorming session can work well with large groups and takes less
time than a buzz group.
Statement 2 : Role playing is suitable if the subject deals with human relations that
is, leadership, communication and participation in co-operative operations.
Answer
C. Both the statements are true
25
According to which theory, each firm maximizes its profit subject to its cost structure
and product demand constraints ?
Answer
D. Neo classical
26
Which of the following statement is/are correct about Agency theory ?
(i) Agency theory focuses on incentive and measurement problems along with risk
sharing implications of incentive contracts.
(ii) Principal - agent problems in a co-operative are likely to give rise to member
dissatisfaction.
Answer
A. Both the statements are true
27
When a member’s residual claim on the net income generated by an asset is shorter
than the productive life of that asset, then the problem is known as
Answer
B. Horizon problem
28
Which of the following statement is/are NCDC ?
i. NCDC is a statutory corporation under the Ministry of Agriculture.
ii. NCDC formed on 13 March 1965.
iii. NCDC stands for National Co-operative Development Corporation.
Answer
C. Only i and iii
29
What does LAMPS stand for ?
Answer
C. Large-sized Adivasi Multi-Purpose Co-operative Societies
30
When does Kerala Co-operative Societies came into existence ?
Answer
B. 15th May 1969
th
31
Order the five phases of a meeting :
i. End
ii. Beginning
iii. Evaluation
iv. Introduction
v. Discussion
Answer
C. ii, iv, v, iii, i
32
Identify the correct statements.
(i) Public relation is the relationship between General Public and Co-operative.
(ii) PR refers to the image which the co-operative presents to the outside world and
how this is promoted ?
Answer
B. Both the statements are true
33
The committee “Task force on Revival of Co-operative Credit Institutions” (2005) was
formed under the chairmanship of
Answer
C. A. Vaidyanathan
34
Which Section deals with Co-operative Ombudsman ?
Answer
A. Section 69 A
35
Expand ICAO.
Answer
D. International Co-operative Agricultural Organisation
36
Who presides over the General Assembly and Board of lCA ?
Answer
B. President
37
What does MATSYAFED refer to ?
Answer
C. Kerala State Co-operative Federation for Fisheries Development Ltd.
38
Which commission recommended the establishment of Rural Agricultural Banks
through the establishment of Mutual Credit Associations ?
Answer
C. Maclagan Commission
39
Who recommended NCCT ?
Answer
B. Swaminathan Committee
40
Name the first society organized under Travancore Co-operative Societies Act ?
Answer
A. Trivandrum Central Co-operative Bank
41
Who prepares Audit Memorandum ?
Answer
C. Auditor
42
Which Section deals with Co-operative Tribunal ?
Answer
C. 81
43
A business transaction is having _______ nature.
Answer
D. All of these
44
Accounting gives the _______ to record all transactions.
Answer
D. Framework
45
Identify the accounting concept followed by a business which creates provisions for
certain types of contingencies that may happen in near future but does not anticipate
any future profit.
Answer
B. Conservatism Concept
46
______ are generally accepted rules and assumptions that assist accountants in the
preparation of financial statements.
Answer
A. Accounting Principles
47
______ is the first step of accounting process.
Answer
A. Journalising
48
______ of the following is not an objective of accounting.
Answer
D. Recording all the quantitative factors
49
Find out the odd one.
Answer
B. Cash at bank
50
The total assets of a trader are Rs. 4,50,000 and outside liabilities are Rs. 1,50,000
then owners equity will be
Answer
B. Rs. 3,00,000
51
Any irrecoverable portion of sundry debtors is termed as
Answer
A. Bad debts
52
Cost of services and things used for earning revenue is termed as
Answer
B. Expense
53
The audit shall include an examination of overdue debts if any of the society concerned
as per _______ of KCS Act/Rules 1969.
Answer
B. Section 64
54
The financial statements and other statutory statements as required by the auditors
shall be prepared by the chief executive of the society within
Answer
D. One month from the date of close of the financial year
55
The appointing authority of internal auditor of a co-operative society is
Answer
A. Managing Committee
56
__________ of the following classes of societies are exempted from the payment of
audit fees.
Answer
D. All of these
57
Qualification of DCA is specified in ______ of KCS Act/Rules 1969.
Answer
D. Rule 64B
58
Internal control includes
Answer
C. Both
59
_______ need pay only half of the rate of audit fees chargeable as per Rule 65 of
KCS Rule 1969.
Answer
D. All of these
60
Checking of casting and posting come under
Answer
A. Routine Checking
61
When an entry is made in journal,
Answer
B. Accounts to be debited listed first
62
_____ is an example of capital reserve.
Answer
D. All of these
63
It shall be the duty of the ______ of every society to ensure the accuracy of financial
and other statutory statements.
Answer
B. Managing Committee
64
Rectification report on the defects mentioned in the audit certificate is to submitted
to the Registrar and DCA within two months of the receipt of the audit certificate as
per ________ of KCS Act/Rules 1969.
Answer
B. Section 64
65
The person appointed to operate the account after his death by the deceased himself
before his death is called
Answer
A. Executor
66
While encashing a traveller’s cheque, the payee is identified by
Answer
D. Signature of the payee on the cheque
67
A person who is legally entitled to the possession of the negotiable instrument in
his own name and to receive the amount thereof is known as
Answer
B. Holder
68
Cancellation of crossing can be done by
Answer
C. Drawer of the cheque
69
When a Banker accepts the securities for safe custody, the relationship between the
banker and the customer is that of
Answer
B. Trustee and beneficiary
70
Pledge can be created by
Answer
D. Any of the above methods
71
In case of hypothecation insurance charge for the goods are borne by
Answer
A. The borrower
72
In case of default by the borrower, the banker can sell the pledged goods
Answer
B. After issuing notice to the borrower
73
Repo facility means
Answer
D. Borrowing against securities on repurchase basis
74
Restrictive endorsement means an endorsement which
Answer
C. Prohibits further negotiation
75
A banker should not refuse payment of a cheque if
Answer
Question Cancelled
76
The following is not a material alteration
Answer
D. Alteration from general crossing to special crossing
77
Combined leverage can be used to measure the relationship between
Answer
B. Sales and EPS
78
The conflicts in project ranking in capital budgeting as per NPV and IRR may arise
because of
Answer
D. All the above
79
Which one is more appropriate for cost of retained earnings ?
Answer
B. Opportunity cost to the firm
80
The presence of fixed costs in the total cost structure of a firm results into
Answer
B. Operating leverage
81
A view that the dividend policy of a firm has a bearing on share valuation advocated
by James E. Walter is based on which one of the following assumptions ?
Answer
A. Retained earnings is only a source of Financing
82
Which one of the following will not affect the working capital ?
Answer
A. Realisation of cash from debtors
83
Financial leverage measures
Answer
B. Financial risk
84
Which one of the following is the most popular method for estimating the cost of
equity ?
Answer
A. Capital asset pricing model
85
Why marketers go for market segmentation ?
i. Same needs and wants.
ii. Differ in purchasing power and buying habits.
iii. Develop new products to satisfy the customers.
Answer
A. Only ii and iii
86
Which of the following are the advertising objectives ?
i. Telling the market about a new product.
ii. Encourage switching to competitor’s brand.
iii. Keeping the product in buyers’ mind during off seasons.
iv. Change buyer perception of product attributes.
Answer
C. Only i, iii and iv
87
Identify the correct statement :
Statement (I) : Target marketing is not suitable for services.
Statement (II) : Firms can expand the market share through target marketing.
Codes :
Answer
D. Statement (I) is incorrect while statement (II) is correct
88
Assertion (A) : In production concept if the product is really good and the price is
reasonable, there is no need for special marketing efforts.
Reason (R) : Producing best possible product is not enough to purchase a product,
effective sales promotion is needed.
Codes :
A)
Answer
C. is false but
89
Match the items of List – II with the items of List – I and indicate the code of correct
matching. The items relate to price-positioning strategies.
List – I List – II
a. premium pricing strategy i. producing a lower-quality product
and charging a low price
b. economy pricing strategy ii. producing a high-quality product
and charging the lowest price
c. good-value strategy iii. producing a lower-quality product,
but charging a high price
d. over charging strategy iv. producing a high-quality product
and charging the highest price
Codes :
a b c d
Answer
D. iv i ii iii
90
Which of the following statements are correct about marketing environment ?
i. Marketing environment is dynamic.
ii. Marketing environment affects the marketing manager’s ability to serve the target
customers.
iii. Marketing environment is controllable.
iv. Marketing environmental factors are interrelated.
Answer
B. Only i, ii and iv
91
Distribution system creates
Answer
D. Time utility and Place utility
92
Select the correct sequence for new product development.
Answer
B. Idea generation – idea screening – concept development and testing – marketing
strategy development – business analysis – product development – test marketing –
commercialisation
93
Which of the following statement is/are correct about NCCE ?
i. Impart pedagogical and capacity building training to the trainers.
ii. Programmes were conducted for urban development.
iii. Impart training programmes for faculty of cooperative training institution and
supervisory personnel of state cooperative unions.
Answer
B. Only i and iii
94
Match the items of List – II with the items of List –I and indicate the code of correct
matching. The items relate to Theories of Motivation
List – I List – II
a. Herzberg’s Theory i. Theory X and Theory Y
b. Alderfer’s Theory ii. Motivation-Hygiene Theory
c. MC Gregor’s Theory iii. Need Hierarchy Theory
d. Maslow’s Theory iv. ERG need theory
Codes :
a b c d
Answer
A. ii iv i iii
95
Assertion (A) : Grievance redressal is essential for the smooth running of the
organisation.
Reason (R) : Grievance procedure provides an unfair and biased decision.
Codes :
A)
Answer
A. is true but
96
HRM includes
i. Manpower planning
ii. Job analysis
iii. Organisational Climate
iv. Industrial relation
Answer
B. Only i, ii and iv
97
What all activities involved in the job analysis ?
i. To know job duties and responsibilities
ii. To know the job description
iii. To identify the job skills and qualifications required
iv. To identify the job knowledge required
Answer
D. All of the above (i, ii, iii and iv)
98
Identify the correct statement :
Statement (I) : Under the Halsey plan no standard time is fixed for completing a work.
Statement (II) : Under Rowan plan minimum wages is assured.
Codes :
Answer
D. Statement (I) is incorrect while statement (II) is correct.
99
Match the items of List – II with the items of List – I and indicate the code of correct
matching. The items relate to Performance appraisal
List – I List – II
a. BARS i. Ability to achieve objectives
b. Forced distribution Method ii. Simply arrange from good to bad
c. Ranking Method iii. Combination of graphical rating scales
and Critical incident method
d. MBO iv. Rater is asked to appraise the
employee according to a predetermined
distribution scale
Codes :
a b c d
Answer
A. iii iv ii i
100
Assertion (A) : Employee selection is to achieve Need-Person fit.
Reason (R) : Employees with right skills will perform better for the company.
Codes :
A)
Answer
C. is false but
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