| Post Name | Cath Lab Technician Grade II - Health Services |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 019/2025/OL |
| Category Code | 133/2024 |
| Date of Test | 25 February 2025 |
| Exam Type | Online Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Which of the following statement/statements regarding the magnitude of the potential recorded by an ECG electrode at any site is/are false ? A. Directly proportional to the average rate of change of intracellular potential as determined by the action potential shape. B. Directly proportional to the size of the wavefront. C. Indirectly proportional to the cosine of the angle between the direction of activation spread and a line drawn from the site of activation to the recording site. D. Directly proportional to the square of the distance from the activation front to the recording site.
Answer
B. C, D
2
Which of the statement/statements regrading Wilson Central Terminal (WCT) is/are true ? A. The negative input is the mean value of the potentials recorded at each of the three limb electrodes. B. The positive input is the mean value of the potentials recorded at each of the three limb electrodes. C. WCT = mean of the potentials recorded at left arm, left leg and right leg. D. WCT = mean of the potentials recorded at left arm, left leg and right arm.
Answer
C. A, D
3
Which of the statement/statements regarding the augmented limb lead aVR is/are false ? A. In aVR lead, the positive input is right arm and negative input is Wilson central terminal. B. In aVR lead, the positive input is right arm and negative input is left arm plus left leg. C. In aVR lead, the negative input is right arm and positive input is Wilson central terminal. D. In aVR lead, the negative input is right arm and positive input is left arm plus left leg.
Answer
D. A, C, D
4
Which of the statement/statements regarding the PR interval is/are true ? A. Time taken by the wavefront to reach from sinus node to AV node. B. Time taken by the wavefront to reach from sinus node to ventricular epicardium. C. Time taken by the wavefront to reach from sinus node to ventricular endocardium. D. Depicts the duration of atrioventricular conduction.
Answer
A. B, D
5
Which of the statement/statements regarding the U wave is/are false ? A. U wave is due to delayed depolarization in areas of the ventricle that undergo late mechanical relaxation. B. U wave is usually <0.1-0.15V in amplitude. C. U wave is generally largest in leads V4, V5. D. U wave is low amplitude wave.
Answer
A. A, B, C
6
Which of the statement regarding the EPSILON wave is TRUE ?
Answer
D. It is low amplitude, high frequency spike/spikes
7
Which of the following statements are true regarding cornell voltage duration measurement for diagnosing left ventricular hypertrophy ? A. QRS duration x cornell voltage> 2346 mm.sec. B. QRS duration x cornell voltage> 2436 mm.sec. C. QRS duration x sum of voltages in all leads> 1742 mm.sec. D. QRS duration x sum of voltages in all leads> 1724 mm.sec.
Answer
C. B, C
8
Which of the following is not a criteria for right ventricular hypertrophy ?
Answer
C. Increased R/S in V6>1
9
Which of the following conditions can cause Tall R wave in leads V1 and V2 ? A. Normal variant. B. Chest lead misplacement. C. Dilated cardiomyopathy. D. Hypertrophic cardiomyopathy.
Answer
B. A, B, D
10
Which of the following can cause ST segment elevation ? A. Acute pericarditis B. Hypokalemia C. Hypothermia D. Immediately after cardioversion
Answer
B. A, C, D
11
What is the ink used for taking ECG ?
Answer
D. None
12
In Einthoven's triangle which of the following is true ?
Answer
B. I+III=II
13
Total body oxygen uptake during exercise (VĢOā) is defined by
Answer
C. VĢOā = Cardiac Output Ć Arteriovenous Oxygen difference
14
Which of the following is not a contraindication for exercise stress test ?
Answer
B. Congenital heart block
15
Which of the following is not true about six minute walk test ?
Answer
B. Useful in objective determination of myocardial ischemia
16
Cardiopulmonary exercise testing is useful in
Answer
D. All of the above
17
Which of the following is not an indication for terminating exercise test ?
Answer
A. ST depression > 1mm in multiple leads
18
Choose correct option regarding exercise induced ST depression. i) Exercise induced ST depression does not localize ischemia to precise region. ii) ST depression limited to recovery is equally signiļ¬cant. iii) Horizontal or downsloping ST depression > 1 mm in at least 3 leads is the criteria for positive test. iv) Isolated inferior ST depression can be false positive.
Answer
C. i, ii, iv are correct
19
Which is true about BP response during exercise ?
Answer
D. Pseudo-exercise induced hypotension occurs in anxiety
20
Which of the following does not interfere with interpretation of exercise ECG ?
Answer
A. Right Bundle Branch Block
21
Which treadmill protocol is useful in peripheral artery disease ?
Answer
D. Gardner protocol
22
Which of the following options is correct regarding exercise induced angina during TMT ? i) Predicts adverse prognosis. ii) Not signiļ¬cant in the absence of ST change. iii) Dyspnea without angina is not signiļ¬cant. iv) Predicts severity of CAD.
Answer
B. i and iv are correct
23
ST deviation during exercise is measured
Answer
A. 60-80 milliseconds after J point
24
Exercise ECG testing is not useful in which of the following situation ?
Answer
C. Assessing rhythm control of atrial ļ¬brillation
25
The fraction of time that the transducer is emitting ultrasound which is a unitless number between 0 and 1 is called
Answer
B. Duty factor
26
During contrast echo cardiography, agitated saline was injected into left upper extremity vein resulting in opaciļ¬cation of dilated coronary sinus before draining into right atrium. Most likely diagnosis is
Answer
C. Persistent left superior vena cava
27
Identify the false statement
Answer
A. Systolic dysfunction is associated with shortening of isovolumetric relaxation time
28
Echocardiographic criteria for severe aortic regurgitation includes all except
Answer
C. Pressure half time >250ms
29
Viable myocardium is identiļ¬ed during stress echocardiography by
Answer
D. Rest-Hypokinetic; Stress-Normal
30
What is the cutoļ¬ value for indexed oriļ¬ce area of aortic prostheses to diagnose Severe patient prosthesis mismatch ?
Answer
C. ā¤0.65cmĀ²/mĀ²
31
Correct statement about echocardiographic evaluation of suspected infective endocarditis is
Answer
B. Sensitivity of transthoracic echocardiography for detection of vegetations is <70%
32
Correct statement concerning echocardiographic ļ¬ndings of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy (HCM) is
Answer
C. Presence of systolic anterior motion of mitral valve is consistent with dynamic outļ¬ow tract obstruction
33
Identify the correct physiologic ļ¬nding in the echocardiography of a pregnant patient
Answer
C. Altered mitral valve coaptation leading to mitral valve prolapse and regurgitation
34
The expected range of doppler velocity index for aortic prostheses is
Answer
Question Cancelled
35
The increase or decrease in frequency due to relative motion between the transducer and the target is referred to as
Answer
C. Doppler shift
36
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding Doppler ?
Answer
D. Misalignment of the interrogating beam will lead to overestimation of true velocity/gradients
37
In which of the following conditions, the aortic velocity is lower compared to pulmonary velocity ?
Answer
C. Atrial septal defect
38
Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding continuous wave Doppler imaging ?
Answer
A. Aliasing does not occur
39
Which among the options is the ideal transducer frequency for echocardiography in a newborn baby ?
Answer
D. 12MHz
40
Which among the following is NOT a Doppler artifact ?
Answer
C. Billiard ball eļ¬ect
41
The ļ¬ow in which among the following structures is demonstrated by red colour in a suprasternal view ?
Answer
B. Ascending aorta
42
Which among the following cannot be calculated using principles of tissue Doppler imaging ?
Answer
C. Valve area
43
Which among the following transesophageal views resemble the parasternal long axis view on transthoracic imaging ?
Answer
D. Mid esophagal view 120 degrees
44
Which of the following statements is FALSE regarding care and maintenance of the Transesophageal echocardiography probe ?
Answer
C. Use of a cotton cloth is recommended for drying
45
Among the following, the contraindication for performance of stress echocardiography is
Answer
A. Patient complaining of acute chest pain
46
Which among the following measurements is NOT an application of the Bernoulli equation ?
Answer
D. Estimation of aortic valve area
47
Which of the following events is abnormal if picked up during a Holter study ?
Answer
B. Type II second degree AV block
48
Holter study of which among the following patients is most likely to be normal ?
Answer
A. Patient with occasional palpitations
49
Choose the option that records patients electrocardiogram for the longest period
Answer
B. Implantable loop recorder
50
Ambulatory ECG monitoring is not indicated in which among the following scenarios ?
Answer
D. Post myocardial infarction with normal LV function
51
Which is the S.I. unit for eļ¬ective dose of radiation ?
Answer
B. Sievert (Sv)
52
Which of the following is not true about the "LAO caudal" view ?
Answer
D. Good separation of vessels is seen in vertically displaced hearts
53
Which of the following is false regarding the radiation safety of the staļ¬ in the catheterization laboratory ?
Answer
B. More use of the left lateral view will help to reduce the operator radiation
54
Which of the following is an Iso-Osmolar contrast agent ?
Answer
D. Iodixanol
55
Which of the following is a source of hazard for both the staļ¬ and the patient in the Catheterisation Laboratory ?
Answer
D. Ionizing radiation
56
All the following are advised for infection prevention in the Cath-lab except:
Answer
C. Use of prophylactic antibiotics by the staļ¬
57
What is the phenomenon of dissipation of energy oscillation of a pressure measurement system due to friction is called
Answer
B. Damping
58
Which is not true about the "zeroing" of the transducer ?
Answer
D. For zeroing transducer is kept at the level of sternum
59
Which of the following is true regarding intra-aortic balloon pump (IABP)?
Answer
D. Needs a stable cardiac rhythm for its function
60
Which of the following statements is/are true regarding normal cardiovascular haemodynamics ? (i) 'A' wave is larger than 'V' wave in right atrium (ii) Mean right atrial pressure is larger than mean left atrial pressure (iii) Mean systemic vascular resistance is 70 dyne-sec.
Answer
C. Only (i) is true
61
Which of the following is false regarding drug allergies in Catheterisation Laboratory ?
Answer
C. The incidence of protamine allergy is less among patients on NPH Insulin
62
Which of the following is not true regarding patient preparation before cardiac catheterisation ?
Answer
B. All patients should have a restraint to prevent fall from catheterisation table
63
Which of the following imaging modalities can be co-registered with ļ¬uoroscopy ?
Answer
D. All of the above
64
Which of the following is not true for Digital Subtraction Angiography (DSA) ?
Answer
C. The dose needed for a single DSA frame is approximately double that of a Cine frame
65
The standard rate of injection for left ventriculography with a power injector is
Answer
A. 10-20 mL/s
66
The concentration of alcohol used for alcohol septal ablation is
Answer
A. 95%-96%
67
The following about Phlebostatic axis in supine position for catheterisation studies in catheterisation lab is true except
Answer
C. It is located in anterior axillary line
68
5 F sized catheter has an outer diameter of
Answer
A. 1.67 mm
69
The Balloon sizing based on Lau-Hung empiric formula for BMV with Inoue balloon is
Answer
B. Height Ć0.1+10
70
The following balloons are used for Balloon mitral valvotmy EXCEPT
Answer
D. IVL balloon
71
The following is not an angiographic catheter
Answer
B. Cournand
72
The following are used for functional assessment of a coronary lesion EXCEPT
Answer
D. Optical Coherence Tomography
73
The following is most useful tool for removing intraluminal calcium
Answer
D. All of the above
74
The hemodynamics in a patient with shortness of breath is as follows RA a 6 V7 mean 6 RV 72/5 PCWP a18 v 25 mean 22 PA 70/30 LV 120/8 Ao 110/40 er diagnosis is
Answer
C. MS AR PAH
75
The following are CTO wires except
Answer
D. FIELDER FC
76
The following are microcathters except
Answer
A. Sting ray
77
In the "MLD MAX" algorithm in OCT study protocol MLD stands for
Answer
A. Pre stending OCT assessment
78
In FFR testing the following agents are used as microvascular vasodilators except
Answer
D. Nitroglcerine
79
The pressure setting in pressure injector for LV angiogram is
Answer
Question Cancelled
80
The ideal balloon size for performing balloon pulmonary valvotomy in Pulmonary valve stenosis with annular diameter 18 mm is
Answer
A. 21.5 to 23.4 mm
81
The ļ¬rst letter in the standardized code for pacemaker nomenclature given by North American Society of Pacing and Electrophysiology (NASPE) and British Pacing and Electrophysiology Group (BPEG), also referred to as NBG code indicates
Answer
B. Chamber paced
82
The most common battery used in permanent pacemaker
Answer
A. Lithium-iodine
83
In radio frequency ablation of AV Nodel Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVNRT), what is ablated ?
Answer
D. Slow pathway
84
Early good response to ablation of AV Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVNRT) is indicated by appearance of
Answer
C. Slow junctional rhythm
85
The site of ablation of Classical atrial ļ¬utter is
Answer
A. Cavo-tricuspid isthumus
86
AV dissociation is most commonly a feature of
Answer
D. Ventricular tachycardia
87
The drug of choice to revert AV Nodal Re-entrant Tachycardia (AVNRT) is
Answer
C. Adenosine
88
The electrocardiogram (ECG) of a patient with an accessory atrio- ventricular (AV) pathway will show
Answer
B. Delta wave
89
The most important complication of Brugada syndrome
Answer
B. Ventricular tachycardia
90
Long QT syndrome is a risk factor for the development of
Answer
C. Ventricular tachycardia
91
What is the primary goal of cardiopulmonary resusitation ?
Answer
B. Maintain cerebral and coronary perfusion
92
What is the eļ¬ect of epinephrine administration during cardiac arrest ?
Answer
B. Increase coronary and cerebral perfusion pressure
93
In cardiogenic shock, hypotension is primarily caused by
Answer
B. Reduced cardiac contractility
94
Which of the following systems is activated ļ¬rst during acute hypotention ?
Answer
B. Sympathetic nervous system
95
What is the classic triad of clinical ļ¬ndings in cardiac tamporade, known as becks triad ?
Answer
A. Hypotension, muļ¬ed heart sounds, jugular venous distension
96
The treatment of cardiac tamponade due to coronary perforation is
Answer
B. Pericardio centesis
97
Which of the following is the First-line treatment of anaphylaxis ?
Answer
C. Epinephrine
98
Which of the following medication is primarily used to counteract severe bradycardia during cardiac catheteization procedure ?
Answer
B. Atropine
99
All are indications for IABP insertion in acute STEMI except ?
Answer
A. Severe aortic regurgitation
100
Which factor is most critical in maintaining perfusion pressure during Cardio Pulmonary Resuscitation (CPR) for cardiac arrest ?
Answer
A. Diastolic aortic pressure
Discussion
Ask a doubt or share a tip.
No comments yet ā start the discussion.