| Post Name | CHICK SEXER (Animal Husbandry) |
|---|---|
| Question Paper Code | 165/2025 |
| Category Code | 478/2024 |
| Date of Test | 4 December 2025 |
| Medium of Question | ENGLISH |
| Exam Type | OMR Examination |
| Total Questions | 100 |
1
Young female pig is known as :
Answer
A. Gilt
2
Act of parturition of sheep is known as :
Answer
C. Lambing
3
Adult male cattle is known as :
Answer
D. Bull
4
Largest and central cavity of cattle is :
Answer
B. Abdominal cavity
5
Body temperature of chicken in (°F) is :
Answer
D. 107.1
6
Name breed of buffalo evolved from crossing Murrah and Surti :
Answer
B. Mehsana
7
Smallest of exotic cattle breeds :
Answer
B. Jersey
8
Select draught breed from the following :
Answer
D. Amrith Mahal
3 A
9
Name group of birds developed by selective breeding :
Answer
D. Strain
10
Each question is provided with four choices
Answer
C. and
11
Select a meat purpose fowl :
Answer
C. Cochin
12
Heaviest Indian Cattle breed is :
Answer
B. Kankrej
13
Milk queen of goat world is :
Answer
C. Saanen
14
Hybrid layer suitable for rearing in cages produced by crossing N and P strains of White
leghorn at Mannuthy, Kerala :
Answer
A. Athulya
15
Meat type flying duck is known as :
Answer
A. Muscovy
16
Identify the following system where animals are let loose in an open paddock system
throughout the day and night except at the milking time :
Answer
B. Loose housing system
17
How much slope should be provided in the floor of a cattle shed towards the drain?
Answer
B. 1 in 40
18
The width of feeding passage in intensive system of rearing cattle should be :
Answer
A. 1m
19
System of culling where the entire flock of birds is removed and replaced at the end of
laying cycle is called :
Answer
A. Mass culling
20
Which among the following statements is correct about cage system of rearing?
(I) about 10-15 birds is reared on kitchen waste
(II) birds are allowed to roam around and forage
(III) high initial cost
(IV) chances of egg breakage are less
Answer
B. Both (III) and (IV)
21
Herring bone, parallel, swing over and rotary are examples of :
Answer
A. Milking parlour
22
Which is the major gas produced during anaerobic fermentation of farm waste in a
biogas plant?
Answer
B. Methane
23
After parturition and expulsion of foetal membranes, uterus relaxes to its nongravid
state and this process is called :
Answer
C. Involution
24
Ideal dry period in cows :
Answer
D. 60 days
25
Duration of oestrus stage in cattle :
Answer
B. 12-24 hours
26
Which part of reproductive system of cow relaxes/opens during heat and parturition :
Answer
A. Cervix
27
Diluent used for preservation of semen at room temperature :
Answer
D. Coconut milk extender
28
Name the hormone produced by corpus luteum :
Answer
C. Progesterone
29
Which male accessory gland secretion has high level of fructose and citric acid?
Answer
A. Seminal vesicle
30
Longest phase of oestrus cycle :
Answer
D. Dioestrus
31
Which of the following hormones are not produced by ovary?
Answer
C. FSH
32
Gestation period in buffaloes :
Answer
C. 310 days
33
Type of placentation found in cows :
Answer
A. Cotyledonary
34
Which of the following is the primary sign of heat in cows?
Answer
D. Standing to be mounted
35
Approximate floor space required for a cow under intensive system of rearing :
Answer
D. 3.5 m2
36
What type of cattle is affected by Black Quarter disease?
(i) All breeds; 0-6 months of age
(ii) Exotic breeds only; 6-12 months of age
(iii) All breeds; 6 months - 2 years of age
Answer
D. Only (iii)
37
Which of the following is used in the prevention of mastitis?
(i) California mastitis test and vaccination
(ii) Dry cow therapy and vaccination
(iii) Teat dip and complete milking
Answer
B. Only (iii)
38
Which of the following causes poisoning due to cyanides?
(i) Tapioca leaves
(ii) Rubber tree leaves
(iii) Jack fruit leaves
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
39
A pH value more than 6.9 for milk sample indicates :
(i) Acidity
(ii) Udder disease
(iii) Late lactation
Answer
B. Both (ii) and (iii)
40
Which parasites are eliminated by first time deworming in very young calves?
(i) Round worms
(ii) Tape worms
(iii) Hook worms
(iv) External parasites
Answer
A. Only (i)
41
Which of the following diseases are caused by virus?
(i) Brucellosis
(ii) Rabies
(iii) Lumpy skin disease
Answer
B. Both (ii) and (iii)
42
Identify the correct match :
(i) Milk fever – carbohydrates
(ii) Ketosis – calcium
(iii) Joint ill – umbilical cord
(iv) Calf scours – poor hygiene
Answer
D. Both (iii) and (iv)
43
The dental formula in adult cattle is :
(i) I 0/3; C 0/2; P 2/2; M 3/3
(ii) I 1/3; C 0/1; P 3/3; M 3/3
(iii) I 1/2; C 0/2; P 1/1; M 2/2
(iv) I 0/3; C 0/1; P 3/3; M 3/3
Answer
B. Only (iv)
44
Which of the following statements is correct?
(i) Weaning of calves should be done only after colostrum feeding.
(ii) Deworming in newborn calves should start by the first week of age.
(iii) The most ideal method of identification of calves is tagging.
(iv) The optimum age of disbudding in calves is 2-4 weeks.
Answer
D. None of the above
45
Which of the following is used for freeze-branding in cattle?
(i) Solid carbon dioxide
(ii) Dry ice
(iii) Ice
(iv) Liquid Nitrogen
Answer
D. Only (iv)
46
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
(i) A pregnant cow should not be casted down.
(ii) Feed should be withdrawn 6 hours before casting of a cow.
(iii) Water should be withdrawn 2 hours before casting of a cow.
Answer
C. Both (i) and (ii)
47
Which of the following statements is false?
(i) One Kg straw can replace 4-5 kg of grass on a dry matter basis.
(ii) An ideal calf starter has 16% DCP and 70% TDN.
(iii) The average birth weight of an HF crossbred calf is 50 kg.
(iv) A heifer may weigh 150-200 kg at 12 months of age.
Answer
B. Both (ii) and (iii)
48
Which of the following practices are essential for clean milk production?
(i) Full hand and fast milking
(ii) Knuckling and slow milking
(iii) Cleaning of vessels with washing soda
(iv) Straining and Cooling
Answer
B. Both (i) and (iv)
49
Which of the following statements is true about legume fodders?
(i) Berseem is thick-stemmed
(ii) Cow pea is not tasty and palatable
(iii) Lucerne is mixed with straw before feeding
Answer
C. Only (iii)
50
Which of the following statements is true?
(i) Feeding of silage after milking is better than before milking.
(ii) Urea is a good source of protein and hence may be incorporated in the feed of calves
from two months of age for faster growth.
(iii) Feeding of fish meal to calves is not desirable because of it’s fishy odour.
Answer
A. Only (i)
51
Match the following words about rabbit :
(i) Coprophagy
Answer
D. Eating own faeces
52
Identify the incorrect statements about Tetanus in goats :
(I) The spores of Clostridium tetani enter the body and thrive, mainly through
superficial wounds.
(II) Goats affected by tetanus often show a characteristic “”saw horse” stance.
(III) The organism is easily destroyed, even in its spore form.
(IV) Tetanus vaccine is administered therapeutically in clinical cases.
Answer
D. (I), (III) and (IV)
53
Select the most critically important element for piglets :
Answer
B. Iron
54
Which of the following statements are correct about goats?
(i) Goat milk is easily digestible as the fat globules are smaller in size.
(ii) Gestation period of goat on an average is 150 days.
(iii) Rectovaginal technique of insemination is commonly practised in goats.
Answer
B. Only (i) and (ii)
55
The peculiar behaviour of pigs which makes them challenging to rear under a free-range
system is :
Answer
C. Rooting
56
Analyse the statements below :
Statement I : In standard rabbit breeding practices, doe is taken to the buck’s cage for
successful mating.
Statement II : It is not done in the reverse order because of the territorial aggression
of doe.
Which of the following is correct regarding the above statements?
Answer
A. Both Statement I and Statement II are correct and Statement II is the reason
for Statement I
57
Which of the following species usually achieves the best feed conversion and the highest
dressing percentage during meat production?
Answer
C. Pig
58
The practice of feeding concentrates to piglets of around 10 days of age in a separate
enclosure away from their mother is known as :
Answer
D. Creep Feeding
59
The maximum permissible level of Aflatoxin B1 (ppb) in poultry feed as per BIS 2007 :
Answer
D. 20
60
Which among the following statement is not correct?
Answer
C. Feed requirement of a chick
61
Character of a good layer :
Answer
B. Full, large and moist vent
62
Which among the following is a feature of B grade egg?
Answer
A. Air cell up to 8 mm in depth
63
Which among the following statement is correct?
Answer
C. In high altitude hatchability is reduced due to reduction in partial pressure of
oxygen
64
Which among the following is a critical aminoacid for poultry?
Answer
A. Arginine
65
Which of the following statement is correct?
Answer
D. 4th to 7th coccygeal vertebrae fused to form pygostyle
66
The fertilization in chicken takes place in which part of the oviduct :
Answer
C. Infundibulum
67
Which among the following statement is correct regarding female reproductive system
of fowl?
Answer
D. Uterus secretes shell pigments
68
Which among the following statement is wrong?
Answer
C. Plumules are large feathers for flight
69
Which among the following is not an advantage of feed restriction in poultry?
Answer
A. Early sexual maturity
70
Blood spot is observed on :
Answer
B. Yolk
71
The normal specific gravity of egg :
Answer
A. 1.05
72
Following Broiler Performance Efficiency Factor is considered as an optimum value for
commercial broiler strains :
Answer
C. 320
73
Colour of yolk is due to the presence of :
Answer
C. Xanthophylls
74
As per Government of India guidelines, the area within ___________ kilometre from the
site of confirmed Avian Influenza disease will be designated as infected zone and culling
of all the birds in that zone will be done to prevent spread of the disease.
Answer
A. One
75
The weight of a turkey poult when it hatches out from the egg :
Answer
B. 48-53 g
76
Amount of feed consumed by a quail quick from hatching to fifth week of age :
Answer
C. 550 - 600 g
77
What should be the ideal distance between the land selected for a duck farm and another
chicken farm?
Answer
A. 500 metre
78
Examine the following statements and select the correct option :
Statement (i) : Female turkeys have a characteristic foam gland in the cloacal region
which helps in sex differentiation.
Statement (ii) : Male quails have lighter Cinnamon colour and characteristic black
stripes on the upper throat and lower breast region.
Statement (iii) : Characteristics curled tails feathers are present in male turkeys.
Statement (iv) : A tuft of hairs in the breast region called beard is present in Muscovy
ducks.
Answer
C. (i), (ii), (iii) and (iv) are false
79
The species which was earlier protected under schedule IV of Wildlife Protection Act
(1972) of India but now removed from the Act is :
Answer
D. Japanese quail
80
In litter management, the amount of hydrated lime powder needed to keep an area of
100 square feet of litter dry and free from bad odour is :
Answer
B. 5 kg
81
In which of the following diseases, feather debris acts as a source of infection?
Answer
C. Marek’s Disease
82
Examine the following statements and select the correct option :
Statement (i) : Outbreaks of the disease Duck virus enteritis in commercial ducks
and geese are commonly associated with contact with wild water
fowl.
Statement (ii) : In ducks, the disease Pasteurellosis causes sudden unexpected
deaths of a large number of birds in a flock, without any signs.
Statement (iii) : In ducks, virus hepatitis infections, ducks fall on their sides, show
paddling movement of legs and after a short struggle, ducks die.
Statement (iv) : Duck plague is a bacterial disease
Answer
D. Only (iv) is false
83
Examine the following statements and select the correct option :
Statement (i) : Newcastle disease is caused by Paramyxo virus
Statement (ii) : Avian Influenza is caused by Herpes Virus.
Statement (iii) : Marek’s disease is caused by Orthomyxo virus
Statement (iv) : Infectious bursal disease is caused by Birna virus
Answer
A. Only (i) and (iv) are true
84
Select the rescue or guard dog from the following breeds :
Answer
B. Rottweiler
85
In which disease dogs showing ‘chewing-gum fits’ symptom?
Answer
B. Canine distemper
86
Act of parturition of Dog is known as :
Answer
C. Whelping
87
Feed of Cat should contain ______________ protein.
Answer
D. 28%
88
Place of origin of Persian Cat is :
Answer
A. Iran
89
New York Dressed chicken is :
Answer
A. Uneviscerated poultry carcass with head, feet and viscera intact
90
Which of the following nutritional components in meat is generally considered the most
sensitive to loss when treated with approved doses of ionizing radiation?
Answer
D. B vitamins
91
Which part of the egg helps anchor the yolk in the centre of the egg?
Answer
C. Chalaza
92
What is the average protein content of a whole large egg?
Answer
B. 6 grams
93
What is the key benefit of using albumen powder in baking?
Answer
C. Provides structure and stability to foams
94
The iron found in meat is highly bioavailable and is known as which specific form?
Answer
D. Heme iron
165/2025 17 A
95
According to FSSAI, colour permitted in Butter is :
Answer
A. Bixin
96
FSSAI stipulates that skim milk must be fortified with _____________ vitamin to restore
the nutrients lost when the fat is removed and to be nutritionally comparable to whole
milk.
Answer
A. Vitamin A
97
Which of the following animal welfare principle advocates for substituting conscious
living animals with non-sentient materials or alternative testing methods?
Answer
B. Replacement
98
The maximum distance a cattle can be transported by walk in a day is limited to
____________.
Answer
A. 30 Km
99
Which of the following statements is incorrect about the Animal Welfare Board of India?
Answer
B. It was started under the stewardship of Smt. Maneka Gandhi
100
The CCSEA is a statutory body established by the Government of India under the
provisions of which specific legislation?
Answer
A. The prevention of Cruelty to Animals Act, 1960
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